text: Decision 2012/005/R of the Executive Director of the Agency of 19 April 2012 on Guidance Material to

text: Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011

text: laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to

text: Regulation (EC) No 216/2008

text: of the European Parliament and of the Council (‘Guidance Material to Part-CC’).

identifier: AMC & GM to Part-CC — Amendment 1

beslut: ED Decision 2015/023/R

title: AMC & GM to Part-CC — Amendment 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2015/023/R

text: Annex to Decision 2015/023/R

text: ‘AMC and GM to Part-CC – Amendment 1’

text: The Annex to Decision 2012/005/R is hereby amended as follows: The text of the amendment is arranged to show deleted, new or amended text as shown below:

text: 1. deleted text is marked with strike through;

text: 2. new or amended text is highlighted in grey; and

text: 3. an ellipsis (…) indicates that the remaining text is unchanged in front of or following the reflected amendment.

text: The Annex to Decision 2012/005/R (Guidance Material (GM) to Part-CC) is amended as follows: ‘Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) and Guidance Material (GM) to Part-CC’

text: GM1 Appendix 1 to Part-CC(3) is replaced by AMC1 Appendix 1 to Part-CC(3) as follows:

text: GM1AMC1 Appendix 1 to Part-CC(3) Initial training course and examination

text: CREW RESOURCE MANAGEMENT TRAINING TABLE The CRM training table recapitulates all elements relevant to CRM training for cabin crew, indicating specifying the following: (a) thoseThe elements of the introductory course on CRM to be covered duringrequired for the cabin crew initial training course and the level to be attained; and, where ‘in-depth’ means a training that should be instructional or interactive in style taking full advantage of group discussions, team task analysis, team task simulation, etc., for the acquisition of knowledge, skills and attitudes. (b) for information thoseThe elements identified as ‘not required’ for the cabin crew initial training, which should beare listed for information as they are covered during other training in accordance with the applicable requirements of Annex III (Part-ORO) ofto

text: Commission Regulation (EU) No 965/2012

text: Annex to ED Decision 2015/023/R

text: CRM TRAINING TABLE Introductory course on CRM Training elements

text: General Principlesprinciples

text: Human factors in aviation; General instructions on CRM principles and objectives; In-depth Human performance and limitations.; Threat and error management.

text: Relevant to the individual cabin crew member

text: Personality awareness, human error and reliability, attitudes and behaviours, self-assessment and self-critique; Stress and stress management; In-depth Fatigue and vigilance; Assertiveness;, situation awareness, information acquisition and processing.

text: Relevant to the entire aircraft crew

text: Error prevention and detection; Shared situation awareness, shared information acquisition &and processing; Workload management; Effective communication and coordination between all crew members including the flight crew as well as inexperienced cabin crew members, cultural differences; Leadership, cooperation, synergy, delegation, decision-making, Not required delegationactions; (covered under CRM Individual and team responsibilities, decision making, and actions; training required by Resilience development; Part-ORO) Surprise and startle effect; Cultural differences; Identification and management of passenger human factors: crowd control, passenger stress, conflict management, medical factors. Specifics related to aircraft types (narrow-/wide-bodieds, single-/multi-deck), flight crew and cabin crew composition and number of passengers

text: Relevant to the operator and the organisation (principles)

text: CompanyOperator’s safety culture and company culture, standard operating procedures (SOPs), organisational factors, factors linked to the type of Not required operations; (covered under CRM Effective communication and coordination with other operational personnel training required by and ground services; Part-ORO) Participation in cabin safety incident and accident reporting. Case studies

type: vagledning

utgivare: easa


identifier: AMC & GM to Part-CNS — Issue 1, Amendment 1

publisher: Europeiska unionens byrå för luftfartssäkerhet

sprak: en

serie: amc-gm

text: AMC and GM to Part-CNS Annex VII to ED Decision 2021/008/R Issue 1, Amendment 1

type: stycke

text: ‘Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Annex VIII (Part-CNS) to

text: Regulation (EU) 2017/373

text: — Issue 1, Amendment 1’ Annex VIII to ED Decision 2017/001/R is amended as follows: The text of the amendment is arranged to show deleted text, new or amended text as shown below: (a) deleted text is marked with strikethrough; (b) new or amended text is highlighted in blue; (c) an ellipsis (…) indicates that the remaining text is unchanged.

type: rubrik

text: N o t e t o t h e r e a d e r

text: In the amendments, and in particular in existing (that is, unchanged) text, the term ‘Agency’ is used interchangeably with ‘EASA’. The interchangeable use of these two terms is more apparent in the consolidated versions. Therefore, please note that both terms refer to the ‘European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA)’.

text: SUBPART A — ADDITIONAL ORGANISATION REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF COMMUNICATION, NAVIGATION, OR SURVEILLANCE SERVICES (CNS.OR)

text: SECTION 1 — GENERAL REQUIREMENTS

text: AMC1 CNS.OR.100 Technical and operational competence and capability

text: CONDITIONS APPLICABLE TO THE PROVIDER OF THE TRANSMISSION SERVICE FOR LOCATING AN AIRCRAFT IN DISTRESS (a) In this AMC: (1) ‘SAR point of contact (SPOC)’ refers to a SAR point of contact that is designated by a State to receive COSPAS-SARSAT distress data in accordance with ICAO Annex 12; (2) ‘competent SPOC’ refers to the SAR point of contact that is competent for the SAR region(s) where an aircraft in distress is indicated to be by the transmitted information; and (3) ‘transmission service for locating an aircraft in distress’ refers to a service that transmits to the competent SPOC information that is contained in signals sent by an airborne system, to comply with point CAT.GEN.MPA.210 ‘Location of an aircraft in distress’ of Annex IV (Part-CAT) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 965/2012

text: (‘Air OPS Regulation’). (b) A surveillance service provider for which EASA is the competent authority pursuant to

text: Article 80 of Regulation (EU) No 2018/1139

text: (‘Basic Regulation’) may provide the transmission service as per point (a) of this AMC; in that case, the surveillance service provider should: (1) establish the performance specifications of the transmission service as per point (a); (2) establish a list of airborne systems that are compatible with their use for locating an aircraft in distress as specified in the Certification Specifications for Airborne Communications, Navigation and Surveillance (CS-ACNS), Subpart E, Section 3; (3) demonstrate that the transmission service as per point (a) can: (i) automatically process activation signals and deactivation signals that are received from any compatible airborne system that is listed as per point (b)(2) of this AMC in the conditions specified in the CS-ACNS Subpart E, Section 3; and (ii) automatically transmit to the competent SPOC the information that is contained in those signals; (4) demonstrate that the transmission service as per point (a) can process signals that are simultaneously transmitted by up to 15 compatible airborne systems as per point (b)(2);

text: (5) demonstrate that the total time from transmission of a signal by a compatible airborne system as per point (b)(2) to delivering the corresponding data to the competent SPOC does not exceed 20 minutes, with a probability of 95 %; (6) demonstrate that the SPOC contact information that is used by the transmission service as per point (a) to meet point (b)(3) of this AMC is global and that there are processes to maintain this information up to date; (7) deliver the data to the competent SPOC in plain text and in a format recognised by the International Aeronautical and Maritime Search and Rescue Manual (IAMSAR Manual); and (8) perform an operational record-keeping function that: (i) integrally records data corresponding to signals transmitted by a compatible airborne system as per point (b)(2); (ii) retains this data for at least 30 days; and (iii) can retrieve data that is recorded in the preceding 48 hours within 30 minutes of receiving an appropriate request.


text: AMC and GM to Part-CNS Issue 1, Amendment 2

text: N o t e t o t h e re a d e r

text: In amended, and in particular in existing (that is, unchanged) text, ‘Agency’ is used interchangeably with ‘EASA’. The interchangeable use of these two terms is more apparent in the consolidated versions. Therefore, please note that both terms refer to the ‘European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA)’.

text: Annex IV to ED Decision 2023/018/R Page 1 of 2

text: Annex IV to ED Decision 2023/018/R Page 2 of 2

identifier: AMC & GM to Part-CNS — Issue 1, Amendment 2

beslut: ED Decision 2023/018/R

text: The text of the amendment is arranged to show deleted, new and unchanged text as follows:

text: — deleted text is struck through;

text: — new or amended text is highlighted in blue;

text: — an ellipsis ‘[…]’ indicates that the rest of the text is unchanged.

text: Annex VIII to Decision 2017/001/R is amended as follows:

text: GM1 CNS.OR.100(a) Technical and operational competence and capability

text: SURVEILLANCE SERVICES PROVIDERS

text: The surveillance system should meet the performance requirements that are necessary to support the provision of air traffic services (ATS). Therefore, before commissioning a new or modified surveillance system, the surveillance services providers should develop a business case to demonstrate that the proposed surveillance system is the most effective solution that safely supports the required operations and, among other elements, considers efficiency issues (e.g. through-life cost (TLC) and the 1030/1090-MHz radio frequencies (RF) band usage). One option for the business case would be the use of ADS-B data. When comparing options regarding the 1030/1090-MHz RF band usage, surveillance services providers should consider the impact not only on their own surveillance systems but also on the neighbouring ones.

text: AMC1 CNS.OR.100(b) Technical and operational competence and capability

text: QUALITY LEVEL OF THE SERVICES — SURVEILLANCE SERVICES PROVIDERS

text: (a) Surveillance services providers should assess the level of performance of the ground-based surveillance chain regularly during the service. (b) The assessment of the level of the ongoing performance of the ATM/ANS equipment referred to in point (a) should be performed in the volume of airspace where the corresponding provision of surveillance services utilising the ATM/ANS equipment is undertaken. (c) Surveillance services providers should periodically check the system and its components and develop and enforce a performance validation regime. The periodicity should be agreed with the national supervisory authority taking into account the specificities of the ATM/ANS equipment. (d) Before the implementation of airspace design modification the ATM/ANS equipment should be verified in order to check that it still meets the required performance in the new volume of operation.


text: For the date of entry into force of this issue, kindly refer to Decision 2017/001/R in the Official Publication of the Agency. Page 1 of 3

identifier: AMC & GM to Part-CNS

beslut: ED Decision 2017/001/R

nummer: part-cns

title: AMC & GM to Part-CNS

text: European Aviation Safety Agency

text: Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) and Guidance Material (GM) to Part-CNS Specific requirements for providers of communication, navigation, or surveillance services

text: Initial Issue 8 March 2017

text: Annex VIII to ED Decision 2017/001/R

text: Table of contents

text: Annex VIII to ED Decision 2017/001/R

text: AMC/GM TO PART-CNS SPECIFIC REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF COMMUNICATION, NAVIGATION, OR SURVEILLANCE SERVICES

text: Reserved


text: For the date of entry into force of this issue, kindly refer to Decision 2017/001/R in the Official Publication of the Agency. Page 1 of 11

identifier: AMC & GM to Part-DAT

nummer: part-dat

title: AMC & GM to Part-DAT

text: European Aviation Safety Agency

text: Acceptable Means of Compliance (AMC) and Guidance Material (GM) to Part-DAT Specific requirements for providers of data services

text: Initial Issue 8 March 2017

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R

text: SUBPART A — ADDITIONAL ORGANISATION REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF DATA SERVICES (DAT.OR)

text: Section 1 — General requirements

text: AMC1 DAT.OR.100 Aeronautical data and information

text: GENERAL (a) Aeronautical data and information in this context should consist of: (1) Integrated Aeronautical Information Package (IAIP); and/or (2) obstacle data; and/or (3) terrain data; and/or (4) Aerodrome Mapping Data (AMD); and/or (5) other data and information that is validated by the DAT provider for the purpose of provision of its services. (b) Aeronautical databases should be databases, used on certified aircraft application/equipment, that support the flight operation where incorrect data leads to failures having at least minor or higher failure effect. (c) The scope should not include databases that are approved as part of the type design of the aircraft or engine (e.g. engine power settings (take-off, climb, maximum continuous thrust (MCT), cruise) and aircraft performance data (e.g. take-off distance, V speeds)).

text: GM1 DAT.OR.100 Aeronautical data and information

text: GENERAL (a) In the context of this Regulation, aeronautical databases should include databases, used on certified aircraft applications, that support the flight operation of aircraft for the purpose of primary communication, navigation and surveillance (CNS) or supplementing CNS. (1) Database used in primary CNS applications (e.g. flight management system (FMS)). (2) Database used in supplementary CNS applications including but not limited to systems generating alerts and used for awareness having the following databases: (i) database for synthetic vision systems; (ii) terrain database (TAWS); (iii) obstacle database (TAWS); (iv) aerodrome mapping database (AMDB); (v) brake assistance to vacate; and (vi) surface indication and alert system. (b) Databases for which the DAT provider is not required to be certified in accordance with this Regulation include but are not limited to:

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R (1) databases provided and/or used by the operator of the aircraft that are monitored under the operator’s responsibility and not loaded into certified aircraft applications (e.g. airport moving map used in electronic flight bags (EFBs), take-off and landing performance used in EFBs); (2) databases not having any safety affect (e.g. used for passenger in-flight entertainment (IFE) systems outside the flight deck, etc.); and (3) databases for systems applications/equipment installed on aircraft certified for visual flight rules (VFR) operation only, except those used for primary navigation to meet the airspace usage requirements.

text: DATA SOURCE The DAT provider should use data coming from authoritative sources. If such data is not formally made available by an authoritative source or does not meet the applicable data quality requirements, but is required by end users, the DAT provider may use data from other (non-authoritative) sources, provided these have been verified and validated by the DAT provider itself and/or other DAT providers to conform with the relevant standards and data quality requirements. If a non-authoritative source is used for the data release, the DAT provider should issue a statement at its discretion.

text: GM1 DAT.OR.100(a) Aeronautical data and information

text: VALIDATION OF AERONAUTICAL DATA The processes of validating the aeronautical data by DAT provider should meet the standards specified in EUROCAE ED-76A/RTCA DO-200B ‘Standards for Processing Aeronautical Data’, dated June 2015, especially Section 2.4.1 (6) and Appendix C, in particular points C.2.1 and C.2.2. EUROCAE ED-76/RTCA DO-200A may be also used for the demonstration of compliance.

text: GM1 to AMC1 DAT.OR.100(a) Aeronautical data and information

text: NON-AUTHORITATIVE SOURCE (a) A non-authoritative source may be an organisation other than those defined in point 32 of Annex I, but providing and/or publishing data derived from data gathering or measuring performed (e.g. by aircraft operators, air crew, DAT providers, or other similar operational organisations, or a combination thereof), transformation of various sources to provide aeronautical data which conform with relevant standards and data quality requirements as specified by the airspace end users. (b) When validating data from a non-authoritative source, the DAT provider should proceed by using either additional information sources to validate this data (like satellite imagery, data or manuals from other providers, users, military, etc.), or data which has been tested and confirmed through operations.

text: GM2 to AMC1 DAT.OR.100(a) Aeronautical data and information

text: DATA SOURCE The first known DAT provider that uses data coming from other (non-authoritative) sources in the aeronautical data chain, accepts the responsibility of the data originator (i.e. ensuring that the data meets the data quality requirements).

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R

text: GM3 to AMC1 DAT.OR.100(a) Aeronautical data and information

text: END USER In the context of this Regulation, the end users should be considered the ‘airspace users’ as defined in

text: Article 2(8) of Regulation (EC) No 549/2004

text: GM1 DAT.OR.100(b) Aeronautical data and information

text: GENERAL (a) The full responsibility for the origination and provision of tailored data and its subsequent updates, as required, should lie with the aircraft operator. (b) The origination and provision of tailored data by an aircraft operator or on the aircraft operator’s behalf for the purpose of air operation is not part of the DAT provider’s scope of activities and this Regulation does not cover its oversight. (c) The use of tailored data is related and limited to the operational purposes of the aircraft operator that requested the insertion of the tailored data.

text: GM1 DAT.OR.105(a)(1) Technical and operational competence and capability

text: AERONAUTICAL DATA SOURCE PROVIDER Aeronautical data source providers should be considered at least, but are not limited to: (a) organisations providing authoritative data for the purpose of air navigation (e.g. AIS providers); (b) the DAT provider itself or another DAT provider; (c) the aircraft operator(s) for tailored data; and (d) the aerodrome operator(s), in case the information is not provided in the AIPs.

text: GM2 DAT.OR.105(a)(1) Technical and operational competence and capability

text: DQR COMPATIBILITY The Type 2 DAT provider should ensure through an appropriate arrangement that the equipment design approval holder or an applicant for an approval of that specific design is responsible for demonstrating (e.g. using system verification tests, sampling checks, etc.) that the DQRs are consistent with the intended function of the equipment.

text: AMC1 DAT.OR.105(a)(2) Technical and operational competence and capability

text: STATEMENT OF CONFORMITY FOR AERONAUTICAL DATABASES Logo of the

text: Statement of conformity

text: DAT

text: for aeronautical databases

text: provider

text: 1. DAT provider certificate number: No …..

text: 2. Type 1/Type 2* DAT provider : Name

text: * delete as appropriate

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R

text: 3. Address: Address

text: 4. Database identification: Identification

text: 5. Database use: Applications/standards

text: 6. Deviations: Deviations

text: 7. New database release: 8. Additional database release (correction):

text: 9. Declaration of conformity: [XXX] databases released and distributed are produced in compliance with

text: Regulation (EU) 2017/373

text: 10. Attesting staff:

text: Date: Name: Name Signature: Signature

text: AIRAC cycle/ validity period:

text: Information to be entered into the statement of conformity for DAT form: Field 4: List all the identifications of the databases covered under this release, or make reference to the document listing all the identifications of the released databases. Field 5: — In case of Type 1 DAT provider, list the standard data formats. — In case of Type 2 DAT provider, list the equipment models and part numbers where compatibility has been demonstrated, or make reference to the document containing equipment models and part numbers where compatibility has been demonstrated. Field 6: List the deviations or make reference to where the deviation information can be found (e.g. a weblink). Field 10: Signature of an authorised representative of the applicant.

text: AMC2 DAT.OR.105(a)(2) Technical and operational competence and capability

text: PRODUCING AND UPDATING AERONAUTICAL DATABASES The processes of producing and updating aeronautical databases should meet the standards specified in EUROCAE ED-76A/RTCA DO-200B ‘Standards for Processing Aeronautical Data’, dated June 2015. EUROCAE ED-76/RTCA DO-200A may be also used for the demonstration of compliance.

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R

text: GM1 DAT.OR.105(b) Technical and operational competence and capability

text: INDEPENDENCE A DAT provider should ensure that the attesting staff and the person involved in the database release is not a single person (i.e. the four-eye principle).

text: AMC1 DAT.OR.110 Management system

text: ISO 9001/EN 9100 CERTIFICATE(S) FOR TYPE 1 DAT PROVIDERS In reference to ISO 9001/EN 9100 certificates issued by appropriate accredited organisations, please refer to AMC1 ATM/ANS.OR.B.005(a) ‘Management system’ ISO 9001/EN 9100 CERTIFICATE(S) FOR TYPE 1 DAT PROVIDERS.

text: AMC2 DAT.OR.110 Management system

text: EN 9100 CERTIFICATE FOR TYPE 2 DAT PROVIDERS In reference to EN 9100 certificate issued by appropriate accredited organisations, please refer to AMC1 ATM/ANS.OR.B.005(a) ‘Management system’ EN 9100 CERTIFICATE FOR TYPE 2 DAT PROVIDERS.

text: AMC1 DAT.OR.110(h) Management system

text: TOOLS QUALIFICATION Tools qualification should meet the standards specified in EUROCAE ED-76A/RTCA DO-200B ‘Standards for Processing Aeronautical Data’, dated June 2015. EUROCAE ED-76/RTCA DO-200A may be also used for the demonstration of compliance.

text: Section 2 — Specific requirements

text: GM1 DAT.OR.200 Reporting requirements

text: GENERAL The DAT provider should notify the competent authority of the following by using the occurrence reporting form: (a) errors/deficiencies affecting safe operations in an airspace segment/block; (b) errors/deficiencies with negative impact on safety stemming from a source in a Member State or a functional airspace block (FAB); and (c) errors/deficiencies with negative impact on safety stemming from erroneous processing of the data or information within the intended aircraft application/equipment.

text: GM1 DAT.OR.200(b) Reporting requirements

text: UNSAFE CONDITION ‘Unsafe condition’ may be considered as a situation where due to a data error there will be, but is not limited to: — aircraft deviation from the published procedure; — erroneous warning (red colour) in the cockpit (e.g. PULL UP, TERRAIN, RWY TOO SHORT); — pilot workload increase due to presentation of misleading or conflicting data in the primary flight display; and Page 8 of 11

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R — malfunction or defect of an indication system at a critical phase of the flight, etc.

text: SUBPART B — TECHNICAL REQUIREMENTS FOR PROVIDERS OF DATA SERVICES (DAT.TR)

text: Section 1 — General requirements

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.100(a)(1) Working methods and operating procedures

text: COMPATIBILITY WITH CERTIFIED AIRCRAFT APPLICATION/EQUIPMENT — TYPE 2 DAT PROVIDER A Type 2 DAT provider should perform tests to ensure that the database works as intended with the application by performing sampling checks on individual data sets (e.g. in a simulation/test bench environment).

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.100(a)(2) Working methods and operating procedures

text: DATA SOURCE In reference to the ‘data source’, please refer to AMC1 DAT.OR.100(a) ‘Aeronautical data and information’.

text: GM1 DAT.TR.100(a)(2) Working methods and operating procedures

text: DATA EXCHANGE To support data integrity, the DAT provider may use digital data sets as a preferred means of data exchange.

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.100(a)(3) Working methods and operating procedures

text: DATA PROCESSING The DAT provider should keep the records for a period of at least 3 years after the end of the validity period of the database unless otherwise specified by other applicable requirements.

text: GM1 DAT.TR.100(b) Working methods and operating procedures

text: SIGNATURE The attesting staff, authorised by the DAT provider, may sign the statements issued in accordance with DAT.OR.105(b) manually or in a digital manner (e.g. digital signature).

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.100(b)(1) Working methods and operating procedures

text: ATTESTING STAFF (a) To qualify as attesting staff, appropriate knowledge, background, experience and specific training or assessment established by the DAT provider should be required. (b) Training should be provided to develop a satisfactory level of knowledge of organisational procedures, processes and products, aviation law, and associated IRs, AMC and GM, relevant to the particular role. (c) In addition to the general training policy, the DAT provider should define its own standards for training, including qualification standards, for personnel to be identified as attesting staff. (d) The training should be updated in response to experience gained and technological advancements.

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.100(b)(2) Working methods and operating procedures

text: RECORDS OF ATTESTING STAFF (a) The following is the minimum information that should be recorded by the DAT provider in respect of each attesting staff member: (1) name; (2) general training and standard attained; (3) specific training and standard attained; (4) continuation training, if appropriate; (5) background experience; (6) scope of the authorisation; and (7) date of first issue of the authorisation. (b) The record should be kept in an appropriate format and should be controlled through an internal procedure of the organisation. This procedure could be part of the management system. (c) The DAT provider should ensure that the number of persons authorised to access the system of personnel data record-keeping is limited and an appropriate access control mechanism is in place. (d) The attesting staff member should be given access, upon request, to his or her own records. (e) The DAT provider should keep the record for at least two years after the attesting staff member has ceased employment with the organisation or the withdrawal of the authorisation, whichever occurs first.

text: GM1 DAT.TR.100(b)(2) Working methods and operating procedures

text: RECORDS OF ATTESTING STAFF Records of the attesting staff may be stored electronically.

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.100(b)(3) Working methods and operating procedures

text: EVIDENCE OF THE SCOPE OF THE ATTESTING STAFF AUTHORISATION (a) The authorisation document should clearly indicate the scope of the authorisation to allow attesting staff and any other authorised persons to verify the privileges. (b) Attesting staff should make the authorisation document available to the competent authority upon request.

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.105(a) Required interfaces

text: INTERFACES WITH THE AERONAUTICAL DATA SOURCE AND/OR OTHER DAT PROVIDERS (a) The DAT provider should demonstrate that formal interfaces with aeronautical data sources or other DAT providers are implemented. Procedures should be established to communicate instances of erroneous, inconsistent or missing data to such providers and monitor that timely and effective responses are received. (b) Where resolution and correction cannot be obtained for data that has been called into question, the DAT provider’s procedures for dealing with this situation should ensure that the DAT provider

text: Annex VII to ED Decision 2017/001/R communicates the alteration or removal of data which the aeronautical data source and/or other DAT provider has not concurred with or resolved. The DAT provider’s procedures should confirm that effective controls are in place to ensure that an unsafe product is not released and that such concerns are communicated to customers in accordance with the requirements laid down in DAT.OR.200.

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.105(b) Required interfaces

text: INTERFACES WITH THE AIRCRAFT EQUIPMENT DESIGN APPROVAL HOLDER FOR TYPE 2 DAT PROVISION The DAT provider should demonstrate that formal interfaces exist with the equipment design approval holder. In particular, the DAT provider’s procedures should stipulate that the equipment design approval holder communicates and responds to issues and constraints concerning compatibility/eligibility for installation between their equipment and the databases of the DAT provider.

text: AMC1 DAT.TR.105(c) Required interfaces

text: INTERFACES WITH AIRCRAFT OPERATORS — TYPE 2 DAT PROVIDERS The Type 2 DAT provider should demonstrate that a formal interface with aircraft operators is in place to confirm that operators’ requests are clearly defined and subject to review.


identifier: AMC & GM to Part-DEF — Issue 1, Amendment 10

beslut: ED Decision 2019/008/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2019/008/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2019/008/R

text: ‘AMC/GM to Part-DEF – Issue 1, Amendment 10

text: The Annex to Decision 2012/015/R of 24 October 2012 is hereby amended as follows: The text of the amendment is arranged to show deleted, new or amended text as shown below:

text: 1. deleted text is is marked with strike through;

text: 2. new or amended text is highlighted in blue; and

text: 3. an ellipsis ‘(…)’ indicates that the remaining text is unchanged in front of or following the reflected amendment.

text: 1. GM1 Annex I Definition is amended as follows: GM1 Annex I Definitions DEFINITIONS OF TERMS USED IN THE ACCEPTABLE MEANS OF COMPLIANCE AND GUIDANCE MATERIAL (…) (ba) ‘Airport moving map display (AMMD)’ means a software application that displays an airport map on a display device and uses data from a navigation source to depict the aircraft current position on this map while the aircraft is on the ground. (…) (fa) ‘Controlled portable electronic device (C-PED)’ means a PED subject to administrative control by the operator that uses it. This includes, inter alia, tracking the allocation of the devices to specific aircraft or persons and ensuring that no unauthorised changes are made to the hardware, software, or databases. C-PEDs can be assigned to the category of non-intentional transmitters or T-PEDs. (fb) ‘EFB installed resources’ means certified EFB hardware components external to the EFB host platform itself, such as input/output components (installed remote displays, keyboards, pointing devices, switches, etc.) or a docking station. (fc) ‘EFB mounting device’ means an aircraft certified part that secures a portable or installed EFB, or EFB system components. (fd) ‘EFB system supplier’ means the company responsible for developing, or for having developed, the EFB system or part of it. (…) (na) ‘Installed EFB’ means an EFB host platform installed in an aircraft, capable of hosting type A and/or type B EFB applications. It may also host certified applications. It is an aircraft part, and, is therefore, covered by the aircraft airworthiness approval. (…) Annex I to ED Decision 2019/008/R (ta) ‘Miscellaneous (non-EFB) software applications’ means non-EFB applications that support function(s) not directly related to the tasks performed by the flight crew in the aircraft. (…) (ac) ‘Transmitting PED (T-PED)’ means a portable electronic device (PED) that has intentional radio frequency (RF) transmission capabilities. (acd) ‘Vertical navigation’ means a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on a vertical flight profile using altimetry sources, external flight path references, or a combination of these. (ae) ‘Viewable stowage’ means a non-certified device that is attached to the flight crew member (e.g. with a kneeboard) or to an existing aircraft part (e.g. using suction cups), and is intended to hold charts or to hold low-mass portable electronic devices that are viewable by the flight crew members at their assigned duty stations. 2. A new GM17 Annex I is added GM16 Annex I Definitions MINOR FAILURE CONDITION Minor failure conditions may include, for example, a slight reduction in safety margins or functional capabilities, a slight increase in crew workload, such as routine flight plan changes, or some physical discomfort to passengers or cabin crew. Further guidance can be found in AMC 25.1309. Minor failure conditions are not considered to be unsafe conditions in accordance with AMC 21.A.3B(b).


identifier: AMC & GM to Part-DEF — Issue 1, Amendment 9

beslut: ED Decision 2019/007/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2019/007/R

text: Annex I to Decision 2019/007/R

text: ‘AMC and GM to Part-DEF — Issue 1, Amendment 9’

text: 1. deleted text is marked with strike through;

text: 3. an ellipsis (…) indicates that the remaining text is unchanged in front of or following the reflected amendment.

text: 1. GM1 Annex I is amended as follows: GM1 Annex I Definitions DEFINITIONS FOR TERMS USED IN ACCEPTABLE MEANS OF COMPLIANCE AND GUIDANCE MATERIAL For the purpose of Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to

text: Regulation (EU) No 965/2012

text: , the following definitions should apply: (…) (xa) ‘Ramp inspection tool’ means the IT application including a centralised database used by all stakeholders to store and exchange data related to ramp inspections. (…)


text: For the date of entry into force of this Issue, kindly refer to ED Decision 2024/002/R at the Official Publication of EASA.

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 1 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 3 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 4 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 5 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 6 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 7 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 8 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 9 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 10 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 11 of 12

text: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: ‘agreed’ refers to agreement between the approved DPO and EASA.

text: Annex to ED Decision 2024/002/R Page 12 of 12

identifier: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

beslut: ED Decision 2024/002/R

title: AMC & GM to Part-DPO.OR — Issue 1

text: Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material for the technical requirements and administrative procedures for the organisations involved in the design or production of air traffic management/air navigation services systems and air traffic management/air navigation services constituents AMC & GM to Annex II (Part-DPO.OR) to Commission Implementing

text: Regulation (EU) 2023/1769

text: Issue 1 22 March 2024

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.A.010(a) Application for a design or production organisation approval and demonstration of capability

text: FORM

text: The dedicated EASA application form (FO.AOA.00085) should be obtained from the EASA website and completed and signed by the accountable manager of the design or production organisation (DPO). The completed form should be submitted to EASA, accompanied by a copy of the organisation exposition and the company’s registration, in accordance with the instructions included in the form.

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.A.045(a)(1) Failures, malfunctions, and defects

text: COLLECTION, INVESTIGATION AND ANALYSIS OF OCCURRENCES

text: The ‘collection’, ‘investigation’ and ‘analysis’ functions of the DPO’s reporting system should include means to: — analyse occurrences, and related available information; — identify adverse trends; — investigate associated root cause(s); and — establish any necessary corrective action(s).

text: GM1 DPO.OR.A.045(a)(1) Failures, malfunctions, and defects

text: COLLECTION FUNCTION

text: The word ‘collection’ refers to the setting up of procedures which will enable relevant failures, malfunctions and defects or other occurrences to be properly collected when they occur. As the collection system needs to accept reports that originate outside the organisation (from ATM/ANS providers, suppliers, etc.), it is necessary to inform possible reporters of the existence of the DPO’s reporting system and the appropriate means to submit reports into it. This does not presume that direct access to the system is to be granted if other mechanisms are more appropriate.

text: GM1 DPO.OR.A.045(c) Failures, malfunctions, and defects

text: REPORTING TO EASA

text: The reporting process could include: — a description of the applicable requirements for the reporting; — a description of the reporting mechanism, including forms, means and deadlines; — the personnel responsible for reporting.

text: GM1 DPO.OR.A.045(c);(d) Failures, malfunctions and defects

text: REPORTING TO EASA — ‘AWARE’

text: The reference to being ‘aware’ of an occurrence implies that the organisation identifies the event as one that falls into the category of occurrences to be reported. The 72-hour period starts when the possible unsafe condition is identified by the DPO.

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.A.045(e) Failures, malfunctions and defects

text: FOLLOW-UP AND CLOSURE OF REPORTED OCCURRENCES

text: (a) The organisation should transmit the following information to EASA within 30 days from the date of notification of the occurrence to EASA: (1) the latest position of the organisation responsible for design as to whether an unsafe, insecure or under-performing condition is confirmed; (2) the results of the occurrence analysis and of the first investigation — including the cause(s) of the occurrence and missing information, if known; and (3) the measures it has taken, intends to take or proposes to take, including an assessment evaluating whether the product can be operated safely until the corrective action is defined and implemented, or that immediate mitigation measures need to be implemented until a more refined assessment can be provided. (b) The final (close-out) report, as soon as available and, in principle, no later than 3 months after the occurrence notification, should include: — the final position of the organisation involved in the design as to whether an unsafe, insecure or under-performing condition exists; — the results of the occurrence analysis and of the final investigation — including the cause(s) of the occurrence and missing information; — any corrective and preventive measures taken by the reporting organisation; and — an assessment evaluating whether these corrective and preventive measures allow the product to be operated as intended. (c) Notwithstanding point (a), when the organisation identifies that no unsafe, insecure or underperforming condition exists as a result of their analysis of a voluntarily reported occurrence, it can delay further communication to EASA up to the issuance of the final report and report the occurrence as closed upon issue (data exchange). In such cases, no follow-up report should be submitted. The final report to EASA should include confirmation and justification that no unsafe, insecure or under-performing condition exists. The organisation is requested to provide information on the cause(s) of the occurrence and on the corrective or preventive measures that were taken by the organisation. This way of reporting should not be understood as an accepted deviation from the applicable requirements. If, at any stage during the investigation, the organisation identifies that a possible

text: unsafe, insecure or under-performing condition exists, it should be communicated to EASA via a mandatory report within 72 hours.

text: GM1 DPO.OR.B.001 Management system

text: QUALITY MANAGEMENT ELEMENTS OF THE MANAGEMENT SYSTEM — ISO 9001 CERTIFICATE

text: An ISO 9001 certificate, relevant to the scope of the approval being requested, issued by an appropriately accredited organisation, covers some quality management elements of the management system, but it does not address other system engineering and safety processes required by this Regulation. EASA may accept ISO 9001 certificates as evidence during compliance investigations for those elements covered. Other elements required by this Regulation in reference to the management system that are not covered by the ISO 9001 certificate issued by an appropriately accredited organisation will be subject to oversight by EASA.

text: GM1 DPO.OR.B.001(a) Management system

text: The management system should include: (a) an organisational structure to: (1) control the design, including demonstration of compliance with the applicable detailed specifications; (2) independently check demonstrations of compliance; (3) liaise with EASA; (4) continuously evaluate the organisation; (5) manage contracted activities; (b) procedures and responsibilities associated with the functions listed above, taking due account of the requirements applicable to design and approval of changes to ATM/ANS equipment design.

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.B.001(c) Management system

text: COMPLIANCE MONITORING

text: (a) The monitoring of compliance of the management system with the applicable requirements and the adequacy of the established procedures should be performed by systematic means. These systematic means of compliance monitoring may include structured experience exchanges, regular design meetings, brainstorming or lessons-learned sessions, project reviews at appropriate phases of the development, or other similar means.

text: (b) Audits should be one element of compliance monitoring. When implemented, audits should be conducted as combined process/product (project) audits that focus on the implemented key processes or methods practised. In addition, audits should also allow the design or production organisation to find ways to become more efficient by continuous improvement.

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.B.005(b) Change management

text: PROCEDURE TO MANAGE CHANGES TO ATM/ANS EQUIPMENT

text: (a) A procedure should be established for the classification and approval of design changes to the ATM/ANS equipment. The procedure should define criteria for classifying a change as minor or major, taking into account points ATM/ANS.EQMT.CERT.020 and ATM/ANS.EQMT.DEC.020 of Delegated

text: Regulation (EU) 2023/1768

text: , and the following key aspects: (b) The change is classified as major when: (1) the change includes one of the following evolutions: (i) new concept of operation of the equipment; (ii) new technologies or techniques used in the ATM/ANS equipment development (e.g. used in design or verification); (iii) changes to the ATM/ANS equipment that could significantly impact its functions and its reverification; (iv) changes to the software that significantly impact a software function and induce subsequent reverification and reinvestigation; (v) changes to the hardware that significantly impact a hardware function and induce subsequent reverification and reinvestigation; or (vi) modified ATM/ANS equipment architecture (2) the change introduces the need to add requirements to or remove requirements from: (i) the previously approved certification basis (for ATM/ANS equipment subject to certification); or (ii) the detailed specifications referred to in the declaration (for ATM/ANS equipment subject to declaration of design compliance); for instance, addition or removal of a function addressed in the detailed specifications; (3) the change introduces a new limitation to or a new deviation from: (i) the previously approved certification basis (for ATM/ANS equipment subject to certification); or (ii) the detailed specifications referred to in the declaration (for ATM/ANS equipment subject to declaration of design compliance); and (4) the change introduces a new or modified means of compliance used by the DPO, not previously investigated by EASA, to demonstrate compliance with the certification basis

text: (for ATM/ANS equipment subject to certification) or with detailed specifications referred to in the declaration (for ATM/ANS equipment subject to declaration of design compliance). (c) The procedure for change management should be defined in coordination with the procedure for configuration of the ATM/ANS equipment, i.e. the part numbering system of DPO equipment should incorporate how minor changes will be reflected in the configuration of the equipment, and more particularly in the part number structure. In the case of a major change, a new model designation / part number may need to be defined. (d) Minor changes should be processed in accordance with the privileges of the approved DPO. For minor changes, the approved DPO should: (1) record the change description and the justification for the change classification; (2) update all related technical documents including the user manual; (3) record continuous compliance with the ATM/ANS equipment certificate or ATM/ANS equipment declaration of design compliance; (4) notify EASA of the minor changes. When the change is managed in accordance with the change management procedure approved by EASA, the notification can be sent after the change is introduced. (e) Major changes should be notified to EASA prior to their introduction by submission of one of the following: (1) an application for the issue of a new certificate, in accordance with point ATM/ANS.EQMT.CERT.020 of Implementing

text: Regulation (EU) 2023/1768

text: , for ATM/ANS equipment subject to Article 4 of that Regulation; or (2) a new declaration of design compliance, in accordance with point ATM/ANS.EQMT.DEC.020(b) of Implementing

text: Regulation (EU) 2023/1768

text: , for ATM/ANS equipment subject to Article 5 of that Regulation.

text: GM1 DPO.OR.B.005(b) Change management

text: GENERAL

text: When performing changes to ATM/ANS equipment, a change impact analysis is performed to assess and document the impact of the change on the requirements, design, verification and its associated life cycle data, used for demonstration of compliance. The communication regarding major changes to ATM/ANS equipment will indicate: (a) the description of the change; (b) the impact on the equipment and its associated life cycle data for demonstration of compliance; (c) the impact on the demonstration of compliance with the EASA applicable detailed specifications and certification basis, identifying in particular: (1) the compliance demonstration with any new detailed specifications, not subject to the initial certificate or declaration;

text: (2) any new limitations; (3) any new deviations; (4) changes in the means of compliance with the applicable detailed specifications; and (d) the proposed EASA level of involvement, in the case of ATM/ANS equipment subject to certification.

text: GM2 DPO.OR.B.005(b) Change management

text: REACTION BY THE DPO TO AN UNPLANNED (MAJOR) CHANGE

text: The procedure may also include the process for the reaction by the DPO to an unplanned (major) change that may arise with the need for urgent action that would normally require prior approval by the Agency.

text: GM3 DPO.OR.B.005(b) Change Management

text: CASES IN WHICH THE DPO REACTS TO AN UNPLANNED (MAJOR) CHANGE

text: The cases in which the DPO reacts to an unplanned (major) change usually are when the DPO responds immediately to a safety, security or interoperability problem or when an emergency situation arises in which the DPO has to take immediate action (e.g. security patches) to ensure the safety, security or interoperability of its equipment in operation.

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.B.015 Contracted activities

text: DPO RESPONSIBILITY WHEN CONTRACTING ACTIVITIES

text: (a) A DPO, responsible for ensuring that the design of the ATM/ANS equipment complies with the applicable certification basis requirements or detailed specifications used for the declaration of design compliance, as applicable, should ensure that components designed, or tasks performed, by external parties are acceptable. To discharge this responsibility, the DPO should implement documented methods that ensure the compliance of the finished (ready to be delivered) ATM/ANS equipment, and that make use of these components or task results, prior to issuing the final EASA release form. (b) As the responsibility for verification of compliance remains with the DPO, no specific qualification measures are required other than to pragmatically verify the capabilities of the external party, and to ensure that the required level of detail is met to enable the task results to be adequately verified. (c) If a DPO subcontracts the compliance monitoring function to an external party that conducts the task, but does not hold its own DPO approval, then the same requirements for the qualification, nomination and documentation apply to the person who is nominated and indicated in the DPO handbook of the contracting DPO.

text: (d) Alternatively, if an organisation with a DPO approval obtains design substantiation data from a subcontractor that also holds a DPO approval, and the work that is conducted is within the approved scope of this subcontractor DPO, the subcontractor’s design data becomes acceptable when the contracting DPO has verified that the results adequately meet the needs of the ATM/ANS equipment under development. Additional formal compliance verification by the contracting DPO is not required if the person responsible for compliance verification of the contracted DPO signs and approves the document under its DPO approval.

text: AMC2 DPO.OR.B.015 Contracted activities

text: RESPONSIBILITY WHEN CONTRACTING ACTIVITIES

text: (a) A contract should exist between the DPO and the contracted organisation clearly defining the contracted activities and the applicable requirements. (b) The contracted activities, performed by an organisation that is not itself approved in accordance with this Regulation to carry out such activity, should be included in the DPO’s oversight process. (c) A DPO should ensure that the contracted organisation has the necessary authorisation, declaration or approval when required, and commands the resources and competence to undertake the task.

text: GM1 DPO.OR.B.015 Contracted activities

text: Regardless of the approval status of the contracted organisation, the DPO is responsible for ensuring that all contracted activities are subject to compliance monitoring.

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.C.001(b) Organisations involved in the design or production of ATM/ANS equipment

text: DESIGN ACTIVITIES

text: (a) Specifying, developing, and testing the ATM/ANS equipment before production should be considered design activities. (b) When components designed by contracted organisations are integrated into the ATM/ANS equipment, design activities by the DPO should also include the requirements specification (functional, performance, interfaces, adaptation) of these components at the level of their integration and corresponding verifications to ensure the overall compliance.

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.C.001(c) Organisations involved in the design or production of ATM/ANS equipment

text: PRODUCTION ACTIVITIES

text: The following should be considered production activities: (a) manufacturing/acquisition; (b) conformance to design data; (c) release process; and (d) delivery to customers.

text: GM1 DPO.OR.C.001(c) Organisations involved in the design or production of ATM/ANS equipment

text: PRODUCTION ACTIVITIES

text: Figure 1 — Production activities

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.C.001(d) Organisations involved in the design or production of ATM/ANS equipment

text: EASA RELEASE FORM

text: (a) An EASA release form should be issued for ATM/ANS equipment produced by the DPO as per the organisation’s scope of work relevant to the terms of approval. (b) Each organisation involved in the production of ATM/ANS equipment subject to conformity assessment under this Regulation should issue a statement of conformity regarding its production, using an EASA release form (see AMC1 DPO.OR.C.001(e)). This statement should be signed by an authorised person involved in the production of the ATM/ANS equipment. (c) An EASA release form should contain a statement that: (1) the finished (ready to be delivered) ATM/ANS equipment conforms to the approved design data of the ATM/ANS equipment subject to certification or declaration in accordance with

text: Article 4

text: or Article 5 of Delegated

text: Regulation (EU) 2023/1768

text: respectively; (2) the ATM/ANS equipment has been manufactured in compliance with Implementing

text: Regulation (EU) 2023/1769

text: GM1 DPO.OR.C.001(d) Organisations involved in the design or production of ATM/ANS equipment

text: EASA RELEASE FORM

text: The term ‘produced’ should be considered as ‘released’ for ATM/ANS equipment that has a software component.

text: AMC1 DPO.OR.C.001(e) Organisations involved in the design or production of ATM/ANS equipment

text: EASA RELEASE FORM | STANDARD FORM

text: ATM/ANS EQUIPMENT RELEASE FORM

text: 1. DPO reference 2. Statement ref No: 3. ATM/ANS equipment serial number 4. ATM/ANS equipment model name 5. Part number 6. Certificate ref No: / Declaration ref No: 7. Description of the ATM/ANS equipment 8. Concessions 9. Exemptions, waivers or derogations 10. Remarks 11. Statement of Conformity

text: It is hereby certified that this ATM/ANS equipment conforms fully to the certificated design/the declaration of design compliance and to the items above in boxes 7, 8, 9 and 10. The ATM/ANS equipment is manufactured in compliance with Implementing

text: Regulation (EU) 2023/1769

text: . 12. Signed 13. Name 14. Date (d/m/y) 15. DPO Approval Reference Block 1: The full name and the address of the location of the DPO that issues the statement. This block may be preprinted. Logos, etc. are permitted if the logo, etc. can be contained within the block. Block 2: A unique form tracking number established by the numbering system/procedure of the DPO must be indicated. Block 3: The serial number identification linked to a specific item assigned by the organisation involved in the production for control and traceability and product support purposes. Block 4: The ATM/ANS equipment model name in full as specified in the certificate or declaration of design compliance. Block 5: The part number identification of the ATM/ANS equipment, as it appears on the equipment marking, and on the certificate/declaration of design compliance. Block 6: Reference to the certificate or declaration of design compliance reference numbers for the subject ATM/ANS equipment. Block 7: Brief description of the ATM/ANS equipment, including its main functionalities. Block 8: Unintentional differences from the approved design, referred to as ‘concessions’. Block 9: Only agreed exemptions, waivers or derogations may be included here. Block 10: Any statement, information, particular data or limitation which may affect the compliance of the ATM/ANS equipment. If there is no such information or data, state ‘NONE’. List the design changes to the ATM/ANS equipment, under approved design data, and reference all the applicable ATM/ANS equipment directives (or equivalent) that have been applied on the equipment. Block 11: The validity of the EASA release form is subject to the full completion of all the blocks on the form. Block 12: The EASA release form is signed by an authorised person. Block 13: The name of the person that signs the statement. Block 14: The date on which the EASA release form is signed should be given. Block 15: The EASA DPO approval reference should be quoted.


text: Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Annex VIII (Part-DTO) to

text: Commission Regulation (EU) No 1178/2011 of 3 November 2011

text: laying down technical requirements and administrative procedures related to civil aviation aircrew pursuant to

text: Regulation (EC) No 216/2008

text: of the European Parliament and of the Council. Page 1 of 11

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: The ICAO Accident/Incident Data Reporting (ADREP) system. 3 European Coordination Centre for Accident and Incident Reporting Systems.

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Commission Regulation (EU) No 748/2012 of 3 August 2012

text: laying down implementing rules for the airworthiness and environmental certification of aircraft and related products, parts and appliances, as well as for the certification of design and production organisations (OJ L 224, 21.8.2012, p. 1), as amended.

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

identifier: AMC & GM to Part-DTO — Initial issue

amnesord: Part-DTO - Declared Training Organisation

beslut: ED Decision 2018/009/R

nummer: part-dto-initial-issue

title: AMC & GM to Part-DTO — Initial issue

text: Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R

text: Acceptable Means of Compliance and Guidance Material to Part-DTO

text: Initial issue 14 September 2018

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.110 Scope

text: Point DTO.GEN.110 lists all the training activities that are regulated by Part-FCL and which can be conducted at a DTO. However, for some of the training activities mentioned, Part-FCL (points FCL.130.S, FCL.130.B, FCL.225.B(b), FCL.810(c)) does not require the involvement of a training organisation at all. In this regard, point DTO.GEN.110 does not constitute an obligation for these training activities to be undertaken at a DTO only.

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.115(a) Declaration

text: SUBMISSION OF THE DECLARATION The DTO should submit the declaration (Appendix 1 to Part-DTO), and any attachment(s) thereto, in a manner established by the competent authority.

text: GM2 DTO.GEN.115(a) Declaration

text: RESPONSIBILITY OF THE DTO FOR THE SUCCESSFUL SUBMISSION OF THE DECLARATION It is the responsibility of the DTO to successfully submit the declaration to the competent authority. If the DTO does not receive the acknowledgement of receipt of the declaration from the competent authority pursuant to point ARA.DTO.100 within a reasonable period of time following the submission of the declaration, the DTO should contact the competent authority to investigate whether or not the submission of the declaration has been successful.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.115(a)(2) Declaration

text: LIST OF AERODROMES AND OPERATING SITES OF THE DTO Except for DTOs that provide training for balloons, the list of aerodromes and operating sites on the declaration should contain at least those aerodromes and operating sites where the DTO, either permanently or temporarily (e.g. for training camps), conducts its training activities, where its training aircraft are based and where it has its facilities, as required by Part-DTO. Aerodromes and operating sites that solely serve as destinations for cross-country training flights do not need to be listed on the declaration.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.115(a)(5) Declaration

text: LIST OF AIRCRAFT AND FLIGHT SIMULATION TRAINING DEVICES (FSTDs) (a) The list on the declaration of aircraft used by the DTO should contain at least the models used for training (e.g. Cessna 152, Piper PA 28, Robinson R22, etc.). It is not necessary to list on the declaration each individual aircraft with its registration mark. (b) The list on the declaration of FSTDs used by the DTO should contain the references to the FTSD qualification certificates.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.115(c) Declaration

text: SUBMISSION OF TRAINING PROGRAMMES WITH THE DECLARATION Except for training programmes for examiner standardisation or refresher courses, a DTO may include in the declaration only a reference to a training programme if this training programme: (a) has already been verified for Part-FCL compliance by the competent authority; or (b) has been developed by the competent authority as a standard training programme, if applicable.

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(i) Personnel requirements

text: OCCURRENCE-REPORTING SYSTEM COMPLIANT WITH REGULATION

text: (EU) No 376/2014

text: The following list provides an overview of the main elements of the occurrence-reporting system that is compliant with

text: Regulation (EU) No 376/2014

text: and provides references to the relevant articles of that Regulation. (a) Occurrence-reporting system that caters for both mandatory and voluntary reporting (cf. Articles

text: and

text: ). Note 1: The mandatory reporting system established under

text: Regulation (EU) No 376/2014

text: is also intended for the reporting of those additional items that qualify for mandatory reporting and are defined in the EASA implementing rules. Note 2: The voluntary reporting system is intended to facilitate the collection of details of occurrences that may not be captured by the mandatory system and of other safety-related information which is perceived by the reporting organisation as an actual or potential hazard to aviation safety. (b) Designation of one or more persons to independently handle the collection, evaluation, processing, analysis and storage of details of occurrences with regard to data collection and hazard identification (cf.

text: Article 6(1)

text: ). Note 1: In agreement with their competent authority, small-sized organisations may make use of simplified mechanisms to ensure the collection, evaluation, processing, analysis and storage of details of occurrences, possibly by sharing those tasks with other similar organisations. Note 2: An existing internal safety-reporting scheme, which collects safety-relevant data, proposals and information, including data, proposals and information on potential safety issues that have not resulted in any occurrence, may serve as a basis for the mandatory and voluntary occurrence-reporting system. From this pool of safety relevant information and data collected internally, the organisation will determine whether a mandatory report is required or whether a voluntary report may be adequate. (c) Reporting details of occurrences collected under the mandatory scheme as soon as possible and in any event no later than 72 hours after becoming aware of the occurrence (cf.

text: Article 4(8)

text: & (9)). Note 1: The reference to ‘becoming aware of’ an occurrence implies that a person in the organisation identifies the occurrence as falling into the category of a mandatory occurrence report — usually through being involved in the occurrence or witnessing it, but also on review or investigation of information reported to the organisation’s safety reporting scheme. In the case of design or production organisations, the 72-hour period starts at the point when the unsafe condition is identified. In the case of automated data collection systems, the 72-hour period starts when the person that is responsible for the analysis of the data detected the reportable occurrence.

text: Note 2: The 72-hour period does not apply to the reporting of details of occurrences which may involve an actual or potential aviation safety risk and safety-related information collected under the voluntary scheme. These are to be reported in a timely manner (cf.

text: Article 5(5)

text: & (6)). (d) Establishment of data quality checking processes to ensure that the information initially collected and the data stored in the database(s) are consistent (cf.

text: Article 7(3)

text: ). Note: It is understood that data quality checking processes should address four main areas: — errors in data entry; — completeness of data, specially referring to mandatory data; — proper use of the ADREP taxonomy; — improve data consistency, notably between the information collected initially and the report stored in the database (cf.

text: Article 7(3)

text: ). (e) Storage of occurrence reports that qualify for mandatory and voluntary reporting in one or more databases (cf.

text: Article 6(5)

text: ) using standardised formats to facilitate information exchange and which are compatible with the ECCAIRS software and ADREP taxonomy (cf.

text: Article 7(4)

text: ). Note: Organisations that are able to report through an ECCAIRS software compatible reporting system provided by their competent authority are deemed to be automatically compliant with the reporting system requirements in

text: Article 7(4)

text: and do not need to have their own ECCAIRS software compatible reporting system. (f) Application of the safety policy (cf. AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(ii)) to occurrences: (1) identification of the safety hazards that are associated with identified occurrences or groups of occurrences reported to the competent authority (cf.

text: Article 13(1)

text: ); (2) analysis of the related risks in terms of probability and severity of the outcome, as well as assessment of the risks in terms of tolerability; (3) based on the result of the risk assessment: determination of the need for mitigation action, as required for improving aviation safety (cf.

text: Article 13(2)

text: ); and (4) monitoring the timely implementation and effectiveness of any mitigation action required (cf.

text: Article 13(2)

text: ). (g) In addition to the actions required under paragraph (6) above, where the organisation identifies an actual or potential aviation safety risk as a result of the analysis of occurrences or group of occurrences: (1) transmission of the following information to the competent authority within 30 days from the date of notification of the occurrence to the authority (cf.

text: Article 13(4)

text: ): (i) the preliminary results of the risk assessment performed; and (ii) any preliminary mitigation action to be taken. (2) where required, transmission of the final results of the risk analysis to the competent authority as soon as they are available and, in principle, no later than 3 months from the date of notification of the occurrence to the authority (cf.

text: Article 13(4)

text: Note: The legal obligation to provide the initial results of the analysis of the occurrence, follow-up reports and final results lies with the other organisation that issued the initial report. Where an organisation receives a copy of a report from another organisation that initially reported the occurrence to the competent authority, depending on its contribution to the actual or potential aviation safety risk underlying the occurrence, it may however be required to perform its own analysis of the issue reported and to provide a follow-up report to the competent authority. (h) Safety policy and just culture: Consultation of staff representatives to ensure mutual agreement on and adoption of the rules describing how ‘just culture’ principles are guaranteed and implemented within the organisation. Note 1: The purpose of those rules is to ensure that employees and contracted personnel that report or are mentioned in occurrence reports, both mandatory or voluntary, are not subject to any prejudice by their employer or any other organisation for which the services are provided on the basis of the information supplied by the reporter (cf.

text: Article 16(9)

text: ), unless an exception applies (cf.

text: Article 16(10)

text: ). Note 2: Staff representatives may be nominated either by the trade union(s) or by the staff themselves. (i) Ensuring that employees and contracted personnel are regularly provided with information concerning the analysis of, and follow-up on, occurrences for which mitigation action is taken (cf.

text: Article 13(3)

text: ), while ensuring that only disidentified information is disseminated. (j) Ensuring that personal details are made available to staff of their organisation, other than the persons designated in accordance with paragraph (2), only where absolutely necessary to investigate occurrences with a view to enhancing aviation safety. (k) Ensuring that reports addressed to the competent authority contain at least the information listed in Annex I to

text: Regulation (EU) No 376/2014

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(ii) Personnel requirements

text: SAFETY POLICY (a) The safety policy should define, in relation to the DTO training programme, at least the means and methods used for: (1) hazard identification; (2) risk assessment; and (3) effectiveness of the mitigation measures (implementation and follow-up). (b) The safety policy should additionally include the procedures required for occurrence reporting pursuant to

text: Regulation (EU) No 376/2014

text: (cf. GM1 DTO.GEN.210(a)).

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(2) Personnel requirements

text: QUALIFICATION AND EXPERIENCE OF THE HEAD OF TRAINING (HT) (a) The HT should, with regard to the size and the training scope of the DTO, possess sufficient managerial capabilities in order to discharge their responsibilities, and should: (1) in the case of a DTO that provides training in aircraft or FSTDs, hold an unrestricted instructor certificate in accordance with Part-FCL with instructional privileges that are relevant to the training provided by the DTO, including sufficient experience as necessary;

text: (2) in the case of a DTO that provides theoretical knowledge training only, have appropriate experience in aviation and knowledge relevant to the training provided. (b) At a DTO that provides training courses for different aircraft categories, the HT should be assisted by one or more nominated deputy HTs qualified in accordance with paragraph (a) and with regard to the other category or categories of aircraft.

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(2) Personnel requirements

text: SUFFICIENT EXPERIENCE OF THE HEAD OF TRAINING (HT) ‘Sufficient experience’, as per AMC2 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1) paragraph (a)(1), means that the HT should have gained the required experience as an instructor in order to have the capacity to administer the particular training activity of the DTO in question. The following factors should be taken into consideration for determining the experience required: (a) training scope of the DTO, including specific training courses (e.g. aerobatic rating, sailplane cloud flying rating, examiner courses for sailplanes and balloons); (b) location of the DTO training area (e.g. mountains, sea, congested airspace); (c) size of the DTO (volume of activity, number of training aerodromes and operating sites); (d) use of FSTDs; (e) training aircraft models used by the DTO.

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.210(c) Personnel requirements

text: CIRCUMSTANCES UNDER WHICH A PERSON CANNOT BE TRUSTED TO CARRY OUT THE TASKS OF A REPRESENTATIVE OR A HEAD OF TRAINING (HT) IN A MANNER WHICH SAFEGUARDS AND FURTHERS AVIATION SAFETY Examples of objective indications that a person cannot be trusted to carry out the tasks of a representative or an HT in a manner which safeguards and furthers aviation safety. If that person, within the last 5 years preceding their nomination as representative or HT, in a declaration in accordance with Part-DTO: (a) holds or has held a pilot licence and that licence and/or any associated ratings, certificates or authorisations have been subject to limitation, suspension or revocation; (b) has knowingly and deliberately been responsible for committing any non-compliance with the Basic Regulation and its implementing rules.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(d);(e) Personnel requirements

text: DTO INSTRUCTORS In order to ensure and monitor that instructors maintain their required qualification, DTOs should permanently keep a list of all instructors, including information on their instructional privileges as well as on the validity periods of their licences, ratings and certificates, including their medical certificates.

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.210(d);(e) Personnel requirements

text: RESOURCES (INSTRUCTORS) (a) The ratio of all students to flight instructors should allow maintaining the quality and safety of the training provided. (b) Class numbers in ground subjects involving a high degree of supervision or practical work should not exceed 28 students.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.215 Facility requirements

text: (a) The facilities of a DTO should comprise: (1) flight planning facilities providing access to at least: (i) appropriate and current aviation maps and charts; (ii) current aeronautical information service (AIS) information; (iii) current meteorological information; (iv) communications to air traffic control (ATC) (if applicable); (v) any other flight-safety-related material; (2) adequate briefing facilities of sufficient size and number; (3) suitable office(s) to allow flight instructors to write reports on students, complete records and other related documentation, as appropriate; (4) suitable rest areas for instructors and students, where appropriate to the training task; (5) in the case of DTOs that provide training for BPL or LAPL(B) only, the flight operations accommodation listed in (a)(1) to (a)(4) may be replaced by other suitable facilities when operating outside aerodromes. (b) The following facilities for theoretical knowledge instruction should be available: (1) adequate classroom accommodation for the current student population; (2) suitable demonstration equipment to support the theoretical knowledge instruction; (3) suitable office(s) for the instructional personnel.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.220 Record-keeping

text: Training records should be kept in a paper or electronic version by the DTO where the candidate is undertaking their training.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.230 DTO training programme

text: (a) The DTO training programme should include at least the following information: (1) the aim of the course; (2) crediting of previous experience and pre-entry requirements (including appropriate procedures for students that wish to complete their training after having started at a different training organisation); (3) a list of all air and FSTD exercises to be taught, including a description of the objective of each exercise; (4) a syllabus summary; (5) structure and content of the theoretical knowledge instruction; (6) structure of the entire course and integration of theoretical knowledge instruction, FSTD and flight training; (7) student progress checks for theoretical knowledge and flight training, as appropriate. (b) When developing the training programme for a type rating course, in addition to complying with the mandatory training elements included in the operational suitability data (OSD), as established in accordance with

text: Regulation (EU) No 748/2012

text: , the DTO should also follow any further recommendations (i.e. acceptable means of compliance (AMC)) contained therein.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.240 Training aircraft and FSTDs

text: (a) The number of training aircraft may be affected by: (1) the availability of FSTDs; and (2) the number of aerodromes and operating sites of the DTO (cf. AMC1 DTO.GEN.115(a)(2)). (b) Each training aircraft should be: (1) equipped as required in the training specifications concerning the exercise for which it is used; (2) except in the case of balloons or single-seat aircraft, fitted with primary flight controls that are instantly accessible by both the student and the instructor (for example, dual flight controls or a centre control stick); swing-over flight controls should not be used. (c) The fleet should include, as appropriate to the training courses: (1) in the case of aeroplanes and sailplanes, aircraft suitable for demonstrating stalling and spin avoidance; (2) in the case of helicopters, helicopters suitable for autorotation demonstration; (3) FSTDs; each FSTD should be equipped as required in the training specifications concerning the course for which it is used. (d) One single aircraft that has all the required characteristics of a training aircraft mentioned in (b) and (c) above may be sufficient.

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.240 Training aircraft and FSTDs

text: The DTO is required to use an adequate fleet of training aircraft. However, a DTO is not required to own the aircraft used. In any case, the DTO has the responsibility to use airworthy and appropriately equipped, certified and insured aircraft and FSTDs, as relevant to the particular training exercise.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.250 Aerodromes and operating sites

text: GENERAL (a) Except in the case of balloons, the base aerodrome or operating site and any other aerodromes or operating sites at which flight training is being conducted should have at least the following facilities: (1) at least one runway or final approach and take-off area (FATO) that allows training aircraft to make a normal take-off or landing within the performance limits of all the aircraft used for the training flights at that aerodrome or operating site; (2) a wind direction indicator that is visible at ground level from the ends of each runway or at the appropriate holding points; (3) adequate runway electrical lighting, if used for night training; (4) an air traffic service (ATS), except for uncontrolled aerodromes or operating sites where the training requirements may be satisfied safely by another acceptable means of communication. (b) In addition to (a), for helicopters, training sites should be available for: (1) confined area operation training; (2) simulated engine-off autorotation; and (3) sloping ground operation. (c) In the case of balloons, the take-off sites used by the DTO should allow a normal take-off and clearing of all obstacles in the take-off flight path by at least 50 ft. (d) By way of derogation from paragraphs (a) to (c) above, for training that needs to take place in a specific environment (training for mountain rating, training on seaplanes), the training sites used should have the characteristics and facilities that are necessary to ensure a safe conduct of the training.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.250(b) Aerodromes and operating sites

text: SUFFICIENT RESOURCES OF A DTO THAT PROVIDES TRAINING FOR AEROPLANES OR HELICOPTERS AT MORE THAN ONE AERODROME OR OPERATING SITE (a) Deputy heads of training should meet the same qualification requirements as set out in AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(2) for the head of training (HT). (b) The DTO should have the necessary number of instructors (point DTO.GEN.210(d) and (e)) as well as the necessary number of training aircraft (point DTO.GEN.240) in place to ensure proper training at all aerodromes and operating sites. (c) At each aerodrome or operating site of the DTO, the DTO should have in place the facilities (point DTO.GEN.215) as appropriate for the type of training carried out at each aerodrome or operating site.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.270(a) Annual internal review and annual activity report

text: ANNUAL INTERNAL REVIEW The annual internal review should consist of a comprehensive assessment whether the DTO effectively carries out the tasks and responsibilities pursuant to point DTO.GEN.210. Specific emphasis should be given to the following: (a) availability of sufficient resources; (b) conduct of training in accordance with the requirements of Part-FCL and Part-DTO, with the DTO training programme(s) and with the DTO’s safety policy; (c) random checks of training records and course completion certificates issued by the DTO; (d) assessment of the training programme(s) for its (their) adequacy and currency; (e) training aircraft including their documents and maintenance records; (f) aerodromes and operating sites, including associated facilities; (g) evaluation of both adequacy and effectiveness of the follow-up, corrective and, as applicable, remedial action taken after non-compliances that have been detected internally or that have been subject to findings as per point DTO.GEN.150; (h) assessment of the safety policy including its means and methods as defined in AMC1 DTO.GEN.210 for its adequacy and currency; (i) assessment of the effectiveness of the implementation of the mitigation measures, as foreseen in the DTO’s safety policy.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.270(b) Annual internal review and annual activity report

text: ANNUAL ACTIVITY REPORT (a) With regard to the past calendar year, the annual activity report should contain at least lists of: (1) all training courses and refresher trainings actually provided; (2) names of all flight, synthetic flight and theoretical knowledge instructors involved in the provision of training, including, in the case of DTOs for aeroplanes, helicopters and sailplanes, information on the aerodromes and operating sites of the DTO where it has mainly been providing training; (3) number of students per training course; (4) all training aircraft and FSTDs used, including registration marks and FSTD qualification letter codes (as applicable), including, with regard to each aircraft, information on: (i) the training courses for which the aircraft has been used; and (ii) the aerodromes of the DTO where the aircraft has been mainly used; (5) all occurrences, accidents and incidents that occurred during the training courses; and (6) any other information that is deemed relevant by the DTO.

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.270(c) Annual internal review and annual activity report

text: SUBMISSION OF ANNUAL INTERNAL REVIEW AND ANNUAL ACTIVITY REPORT TO THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY The annual internal review and the annual activity report for each past calendar year should be submitted to the competent authority within a time frame agreed between the DTO and the competent authority.

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.270(c) Annual internal review and annual activity report

text: SUBMISSION OF ANNUAL INTERNAL REVIEW AND ANNUAL ACTIVITY REPORT TO THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY It is recommended that the competent authority and the DTO agree on the regular time frames; for example, to agree that the annual internal review and annual activity report for the past calendar year should be submitted during the first quarter of each year.


identifier: AMC & GM to Part-DTO — Issue 1, Amendment 1

beslut: ED Decision 2020/005/R

text: Annex IV to ED Decision 2020/005/R

text: Annex IV to ED Decision 2020/005/R AMC and GM to Part-DTO — Issue 1, Amendment 1 The Annex I to ED Decision 2018/009/R of 14 September 2018 is hereby amended as follows: The text of the amendment is arranged to show deleted text, new or amended text as shown below: (a) deleted text is struck through; (b) new or amended text is highlighted in blue; and (c) an ellipsis ‘[…]’ indicates that the remaining text is unchanged.

text: Annex IV to ED Decision 2020/005/R

text: AMC3 DTO.GEN.240 Training aircraft and FSTDs

text: EVALUATION PROCESS Two cases for the evaluation process of Annex-I aircraft are distinguished: (a) Annex-I aircraft that hold an ICAO-level certificate of airworthiness (CoA) (1) To support the evaluation process performed by the competent authority and provide the competent authority with sufficient data related to the aircraft in question, an instructor who is qualified in accordance with Annex I (Part-FCL) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 1187/2011

text: and nominated by the head of training (HT) of the DTO should assess that the aircraft is appropriately equipped and suitable for the training courses provided. The result of this assessment should be submitted to the competent authority and may be included already in the application for the authorisation. (2) During the evaluation process, the competent authority should consider aircraft that hold a CoA issued in accordance with Annex 8 to the Chicago Convention to provide a level of safety comparable to that required by Annex II to the Basic Regulation, unless the competent authority determines that the airworthiness requirements used for certification of the aircraft, or the service experience, or the safety system of the State of design, do not provide for a comparable level of safety. (b) Annex-I aircraft that do not hold an ICAO-level CoA Before the inclusion of these aircraft in the fleet of an DTO and their use in training to obtain Part-FCL licences and ratings, the DTO should apply for the authorisation to the competent authority that should perform the evaluation process in the following order: (1) Initial assessment by the competent authority and criteria taken into consideration The competent authority should take into account the following criteria (non-exhaustive list): (i) national airworthiness requirements based on which the aircraft CoA was issued; (ii) aircraft similarities to a certified variant; (iii) aircraft with a satisfactory in-service experience as training aircraft; (iv) simple and conventional aircraft design; (v) aircraft that does not have hazardous design features or details, judging by experience; and (vi) operable aircraft systems, equipment, and appliances that do not require exceptional skills or strength. (2) Additional assessment by a qualified instructor To support the evaluation process performed by the competent authority and provide the competent authority with sufficient data related to the aircraft in question, after the positive initial assessment by the competent authority as per point (1), an instructor who is qualified in accordance with Part-FCL and nominated by the HT of the DTO should show

text: Annex IV to ED Decision 2020/005/R

text: through an evaluation report that the aircraft is appropriately equipped and suitable for the training courses provided. That evaluation report should consider all of the following criteria: (i) the aircraft should be safely controllable and manoeuvrable under all anticipated operating conditions, including after failure of one or more propulsion systems; (ii) the aircraft should allow for a smooth transition from one flight phase to another without requiring exceptional piloting skills, alertness, strength, or workload under any probable operating conditions; (iii) the aircraft should have sufficient stability to ensure that the demands made on the pilot are not excessive, considering the phase and duration of flight; and (iv) the assessment should take into account control forces, flight deck environment, pilot workload, and other human factors (HF) considerations, depending on the phase and duration of flight. Subject to a positive evaluation report as per point (2), the competent authority should issue the authorisation.


text: N o t e t o t h e r e a d e r

text: In amended, and in particular in existing (that is, unchanged) text, ‘Agency’ is used interchangeably with ‘EASA’. The interchangeable use of these two terms is more apparent in the consolidated versions. Therefore, please note that both terms refer to the ‘European Union Aviation Safety Agency (EASA)’.

text: Annex VI to ED Decision 2025/002/R Page 1 of 3

text: AMC and GM to Part-DTO Issue 1, Amendment 2

text: Rationale RMT.0587 Correction of the reference.

text: Rationale RMT.0587 Point DTO.GEN.210(c) reads that enforcement measures against a person, in accordance with Part- ARA, within the preceding 3 years shall be deemed as an objective indication that this person cannot be trusted to take the post of a DTO representative or head of training. However, the associated GM, when listing examples for such enforcement measures, refers to the ‘last 5 years’. This inconsistency has to be corrected.

text: Annex VI to ED Decision 2025/002/R Page 2 of 3

text: Annex VI to ED Decision 2025/002/R Page 3 of 3

identifier: AMC & GM to Part-DTO — Issue 1, Amendment 2

beslut: ED Decision 2025/002/R

text: Annex VI to ED Decision 2025/002/R ‘AMC and GM to Part-DTO — Issue 1, Amendment 2’

text: The text of the amendment is arranged to show deleted, new and unchanged text as follows:

text: — deleted text is struck through;

text: — new or amended text is highlighted in blue;

text: — an ellipsis ‘[…]’ indicates that the rest of the text is unchanged.

text: Annex I to Decision 2018/009/R of the Executive Director of the Agency of 14 September 2018 is amended as follows:

text: AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(ii) Personnel requirements

text: […] (b) The safety policy should additionally include the procedures required for occurrence reporting pursuant to

text: Regulation (EU) No 376/2014

text: (cf. see GM1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(i)).

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(2) Personnel requirements

text: […] ‘Sufficient experience’, as per AMC21 DTO.GEN.210(a)(12) paragraph point (a)(1), means that the HT should have gained the required experience as an instructor in order to have the capacity to administer the particular training activity of the DTO in question. The following factors should be taken into consideration for determining the experience required:

text: GM1 DTO.GEN.210(c) Personnel requirements

text: […] If that person, within the last 53 years preceding their nomination as representative or HT, in a declaration in accordance with Part-DTO: […]

text: ANNUAL INTERNAL REVIEW

text: The annual internal review should consist of a comprehensive assessment of whether the DTO effectively carries out the tasks and responsibilities pursuant to point DTO.GEN.210. Specific emphasis should be given to the following: […] (h) assessment of the safety policy including its means and methods as defined in AMC1 DTO.GEN.210(a)(1)(ii) for its adequacy and currency; [...]