text: Regulation (EU) 2016/679

text: of the European Parliament and of the Council of 27 April 2016 on the protection of natural persons with regard to the processing of personal data and on the free movement of such data, and repealing Directive

text: (General Data Protection Regulation) (OJ L 119, 4.5.2016, p. 1).

text: Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014 of 26 November 2014

text: on the continuing airworthiness of aircraft and aeronautical products, parts and appliances, and on the approval of organisations and personnel involved in these tasks (OJ L 362, 17.12.2014, p. 1).

identifier: AMC & GM to Part-CAT — Issue 2, Amendment 18

beslut: ED Decision 2021/005/R

title: AMC & GM to Part-CAT — Issue 2, Amendment 18

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: ‘AMC and GM to Part-CAT — Issue 2, Amendment 18’

text: The Annex to Decision 2014/015/R of 24 April 2014 is hereby amended as follows: The text of the amendment is arranged to show deleted, new or amended text as shown below: — deleted text is struck through; — new or amended text is highlighted in blue; — an ellipsis ‘[...]’ indicates that the rest of the text is unchanged.

text: AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

type: rubrik

text: INSPECTIONS AND CHECKS OF RECORDINGS Whenever a flight recorder is required to be carried: (a) tThe operator should perform an inspection of the FDR recording and the CVR recording every year unless one or more of the following applies: (1) If the flight recorder records on magnetic wire or uses frequency modulation technology, the time interval between two inspections of the recording should not exceed three 3 months. (2) If the flight recorder is solid-state and the flight recorder system is fitted with continuous monitoring for proper operation, the time interval between two inspections of the recording may be up to two 2 years. (3) In the case of an aircraft equipped with two solid-state flight data and cockpit voice combination recorders, where (i) the flight recorder systems are fitted with continuous monitoring for proper operation, and (ii) the flight recorders share the same flight data acquisition, a comprehensive inspection of the recording needs only to be performed for one flight recorder position. The inspection of the recordings should be performed alternately so that each flight recorder position is inspected at time intervals not exceeding four 4 years. (4) Where all of the following conditions are met, the inspection of the FDR recording is not needed: (i) the aircraft flight data are is collected in the frame of a flight data monitoring (FDM) programme;

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (ii) the data acquisition of mandatory flight parameters is the same for the FDR and for the recorder used for the FDM programme; (iii) an inspection similar to the inspection of the FDR recording and covering all mandatory flight parameters is conducted on the FDM data at time intervals not exceeding two 2 years; and (iv) the FDR is solid-state and the FDR system is fitted with continuous monitoring for proper operation. (b) the operator should perform every five 5 years an inspection of the data link recording; (c) The operator should perform, at time intervals not exceeding 2 years, an inspection of the recording of flight recorders other than an FDR, which are installed on an aircraft, in order to ensure compliance with CAT.IDE.A.191 or CAT.IDE.H.191. (dc) wWhen installed, the aural or visual means for preflight checking of the flight recorders for proper operation should be used every day on each day when the aircraft is operated. When no such means is available for a flight recorder, the operator should perform an operational check of this flight recorder at time intervals not exceeding 150 flight hours or seven 7 calendar days of operation, whichever is considered more suitable by the operator. (ed) tThe operator should check every five 5 years, or in accordance with the recommendations of the sensor manufacturer, that the parameters dedicated to the FDR and not monitored by other means are being recorded within the calibration tolerances and that there is no discrepancy in the engineering conversion routines for these parameters.

text: GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

text: INSPECTION OF THE FLIGHT RECORDERS’ RECORDINGS FOR ENSURING SERVICEABILITY (a) The inspection of recorded flight parameters the FDR recording usually consists of the following: (1) Making a copy of the complete recording file. (2) Converting the recording to parameters expressed in engineering units in accordance with the documentation required to be held. (3) Examining a whole flight in engineering units to evaluate the validity of all mandatory parameters — this could reveal defects or noise in the measuring and processing chains and indicate necessary maintenance actions. The following should be considered: (i) when applicable, each parameter should be expressed in engineering units and checked for different values of its operational range — for this purpose, some parameters may need to be inspected at different flight phases; and (ii) (only applicable to an FDR) if the parameter is delivered by a digital data bus and the same data are utilised for the operation of the aircraft, then a reasonableness check may be sufficient; otherwise a correlation check may need to be performed: (A) a reasonableness check is understood in this context as a subjective, qualitative evaluation, requiring technical judgement, of the recordings from a complete flight; and

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (B) a correlation check is understood in this context as the process of comparing data recorded by the flight data recorder against the corresponding data derived from flight instruments, indicators or the expected values obtained during specified portion(s) of a flight profile or during ground checks that are conducted for that purpose. (4) Retaining the most recent copy of the complete recording file and the corresponding recording inspection report that includes references to the documentation required to be held. (b) When performing the CVR recording inspection of an audio recording from a flight recorder, precautions need to be taken to comply with CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1a). The inspection of the CVR audio recording usually consists of: (1) checking that the CVR flight recorder operates correctly for the nominal duration of the recording; (2) examining, where practicable, a samples of in-flight audio recording of the CVR from the flight recorder for evidence that the signal is acceptable on each channel and in all phases of flight; and (3) preparing and retaining an inspection report. (c) [...] (d) When inspecting images recorded by a flight recorder, precautions need to be taken to comply with CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(3a). The inspection of such images usually consists of the following: (1) checking that the flight recorder operates correctly for the nominal duration of the recording; (2) examining samples of images recorded in different flight phases for evidence that the images of each camera are of acceptable quality; and (3) preparing and retaining an inspection report.

text: GM3 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(b) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

text: CVR AUDIO QUALITY Additional guidance material for performing the CVR recording inspection may be found in the document of the French Bureau d’Enquêtes et d’Analyses, titled ‘Guidance on CVR recording inspection’ and dated October 2018 or later. Examples of CVR audio quality issues and possible causes thereof may be found in the document of the French Bureau d’Enquêtes et d’Analyses, titled ‘Study on detection of audio anomalies on CVR recordings’ and dated September 2015 .

text: AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

text: USE OF AUDIO CVR RECORDINGS FOR MAINTAINING OR IMPROVING SAFETY

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (a) The procedure related to the handling of audio recordings from flight recorders and of their transcripts cockpit voice recorder (CVR) recordings should be written in a document which should be documented and signed by all parties (airline management aircraft operator, crew member representatives nominated either by the union or the crew themselves, maintenance personnel representatives if applicable). This procedure should take into account

text: Regulation (EU) 2016/679

text: and as a minimum, define: (1) the method to obtain the consent of all crew members and maintenance personnel concerned; (2) an access and security policy that restricts access to audio recordings from flight recorders and their transcripts CVR recordings and identified CVR transcripts to specifically authorised persons identified by their position; (3) a retention policy and accountability, including the measures to be taken to ensure the security of audio recordings from flight recorders and their transcripts the CVR recordings and CVR transcripts and their protection from misuse. The retention policy should specify the period of time after which such audio CVR recordings and identified CVR transcripts are destroyed; (4) a description of the uses made of audio recordings from flight recorders and their transcripts the CVR recordings and of their transcripts; (5) the participation of flight crew member representatives in the assessment of audio recordings from flight recorders and their transcripts the CVR recordings or their transcripts; (6) the conditions under which advisory briefing or remedial training should take place; this should always be carried out in a constructive and non-punitive manner; and (7) the conditions under which actions other than advisory briefing or remedial training may be taken for reasons of gross negligence or significant continuing safety concern. (b) Each time an audio recording file from a flight recorder a CVR recording file is read out under the conditions defined by CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1): (1) parts of the CVR audio recording file that contain information with a privacy content should be deleted to the extent possible, and it should not be permitted that the detail of information with a privacy content is transcribed; and (2) the operator should retain, and when requested, provide to the competent authority: (i) information on the use made (or the intended use) of the CVR audio recording file; and (ii) evidence that the persons concerned consented to the use made (or the intended use) of the CVR audio recording file. (c) The safety manager or the person identified by the operator to fulfil this role should be responsible for the protection and use of the CVR recordings and of their transcripts, audio recordings from flight recorders and their transcripts, as well as for the assessment of issues and their transmission to the manager(s) responsible for the process concerned.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (d) In case a third party is involved in the use of audio recordings from flight recorders CVR recordings, contractual agreements with this third party should, when applicable, cover the aspects enumerated in (a) and (b).

text: GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

text: USE OF CVR RECORDINGS FOR MAINTAINING OR IMPROVING SAFETY (a) The CVR is primarily a tool for the investigation of accidents and serious incidents by investigating authorities. Misuse of CVR recordings is a breach of the right to privacy and it works against an effective safety culture inside the operator. (b) It is noteworthy that the flight data recorder (FDR) may be used for a flight data monitoring (FDM) programme; however, in that case the principles of confidentiality and access restriction of the FDM programme apply to the FDR recordings. Because the CVR is recording the voices of the crew and verbal communications with a privacy content, the CVR recordings must be protected and handled with even more care than FDM data. (c) Therefore, the use of a CVR recording, when for purposes other than CVR serviceability or those laid down by

text: Regulation (EU) No 996/2010

text: , should be subject to the free prior consent of the persons concerned, and framed by a procedure that is endorsed by all parties and that protects the privacy of crew members and (if applicable) maintenance staff.

text: AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(1a) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

text: CVR RECORDING INSPECTION OF AUDIO RECORDINGS FOR ENSURING SERVICEABILITY (a) When an inspection of the audio recordings from a flight recorder the CVR recording is performed for ensuring audio quality and intelligibility of recorded communications: (1) the privacy of the audio CVR recordings should be ensured (e.g. by locating the CVR replay equipment in a separated area and/or using headsets); (2) access to the CVR replay equipment should be restricted to specifically authorised persons identified by their position; (3) provision should be made for the secure storage of the CVR recording medium, the audio CVR recording files and copies thereof; (4) the audio CVR recording files and copies thereof should be destroyed not earlier than 2 two months and not later than 1 one year after completion of the CVR recording inspection of the audio recordings, except that audio samples with no privacy content may be retained for enhancing this the CVR recording inspection (e.g. for comparing audio quality);

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (5) only the accountable manager of the operator, and, when identified to comply with ORO.GEN.200, the safety manager should be entitled to request a copy of the audio CVR recording files. (b) The conditions enumerated in (a) should also be complied with if the inspection of the audio CVR recordings is subcontracted to a third party. The contractual agreements with the third party should explicitly cover these aspects.

text: AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(3) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

text: USE OF IMAGES FROM THE FLIGHT CREW COMPARTMENT FOR MAINTAINING OR IMPROVING SAFETY (a) The procedure related to the handling of images of the flight crew compartment that are recorded by a flight recorder should be documented and signed by all parties involved (aircraft operator, crew member representatives nominated either by the union or the crew themselves, maintenance personnel representatives if applicable). This procedure should take into account

text: Regulation (EU) 2016/679

text: and, as a minimum, define the following aspects: (1) the method to obtain the consent of all crew members and maintenance personnel concerned; (2) an access and security policy that restricts access to the image recordings to specifically authorised persons identified by their position; (3) a retention policy and accountability, including the measures to ensure the security of the image recordings and their protection from misuse. The retention policy should specify the period of time after which such image recordings are destroyed; (4) a description of the uses made of the image recordings; (5) the participation of flight crew member representatives in the assessment of the image recordings; (6) the conditions under which advisory briefing or remedial training should take place; this should always be carried out in a constructive and non-punitive manner; and (7) the conditions under which actions other than advisory briefing or remedial training may be taken for reasons of gross negligence or significant continuing safety concern. (b) Each time an image recording file from a flight recorder that contains images of the flight crew compartment is read out for purposes other than ensuring the serviceability of that flight recorder: (1) images that contain information with a privacy content should be deleted to the extent possible, and it should not be permitted that the detail of information with a privacy content is transcribed; and (2) the operator should retain, and when requested, provide the competent authority with: (i) information on the use made (or the intended use) of this image recording file; and (ii) evidence that the crew members concerned consented to the use made (or the intended use) of the flight crew compartment images.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (c) The safety manager or the person identified by the operator to fulfil this role should be responsible for the protection and use of images of the flight crew compartment that are recorded by a flight recorder, as well as for the assessment of issues and their transmission to the manager(s) responsible for the process concerned. (d) In case a third party is involved in the use of images of the flight crew compartment that are recorded by a flight recorder, contractual agreements with this third party should cover the aspects enumerated in (a) and (b).

text: AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f)(3a) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

text: INSPECTION OF IMAGES OF THE FLIGHT CREW COMPARTMENT FOR ENSURING SERVICEABILITY (a) When images of the flight crew compartment recorded by a flight recorder are inspected for ensuring the serviceability of the flight recorder, and any body part of a crew member is likely to be visible on these images, then: (1) the privacy of the image recordings should be ensured (e.g. by locating the replay equipment in a separated area); (2) access to the replay equipment should be restricted to specifically authorised persons identified by their position; (3) provision should be made for the secure storage of the recording medium, the image recording files and copies thereof; (4) the image recording files and copies thereof should be destroyed not earlier than 2 months and not later than 1 year after completion of the inspection of the image recordings. Images that do not contain any body part of a person may be retained for enhancing this inspection (e.g. for comparing image quality); and (5) only the accountable manager of the operator and, when identified to comply with ORO.GEN.200, the safety manager should be entitled to request a copy of the image recording files. (b) The conditions enumerated in (a) should also be complied with if the inspection of the image recording is subcontracted to a third party. The contractual agreements with the third party should explicitly cover these aspects.

text: GM1 CAT.GEN.MPA.195(f) Handling of flight recorder recordings: preservation, production, protection and use

text: FLIGHT CREW COMPARTMENT If there are no compartments to physically segregate the flight crew from the passengers during the flight, the ‘flight crew compartment’ in point (f) of CAT.GEN.MPA.195 should be understood as the area including: (a) the flight crew seats;

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (b) aircraft and engine controls; (c) aircraft instruments; (d) windshield and windows used by the flight crew to get an external view while seated at their duty station; and (e) circuit breakers accessible by the flight crew while seated at their duty station.

text: AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.140(d) Maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval

text: OPERATION OF NON-ETOPS-COMPLIANT TWIN TURBO-JET AEROPLANES WITH MOPSC OF 19 OR LESS AND MCTOM LESS THAN 45 360 KG BETWEEN 120 AND 180 MINUTES FROM AN ADEQUATE AERODROME (a) For operations between 120 and 180 minutes, due account should be taken of the aeroplane’s design and capabilities as outlined below and the operator’s experience related to such operations. the operator should include the relevant Relevant information should be included in the its operations manual (OM) and the operator’s its maintenance procedures. The term ‘the aeroplane’s design’ in this AMC does not imply any additional type design approval specifications beyond the applicable original type certificate (TC) specifications. (b) The aeroplane should be certified to CS-25 or equivalent (e.g. FAR-25).Systems capability Aeroplanes should be certified to CS-25 as appropriate or equivalent (e.g. FAR-25). With respect to the capability of the aeroplane systems, the objective is that the aeroplane is capable of a safe diversion from the maximum diversion distance with particular emphasis on operations with OEI or with degraded system capability. To this end, the operator should give consideration to the capability of the following systems to support such a diversion:

text: 1. Propulsion systems: the aeroplane engine should meet the applicable specifications prescribed in CS-25 and CS-E or equivalent (e.g. FAR-25, FAR-E), concerning engine TC, installation and system operation. In addition to the performance standards established by the Agency or competent authority at the time of engine certification, the engines should comply with all subsequent mandatory safety standards specified by the Agency or competent authority, including those necessary to maintain an acceptable level of reliability. In addition, consideration should be given to the effects of extended duration single-engine operation (e.g. the effects of higher power demands such as bleed and electrical).

text: 2. Airframe systems: with respect to electrical power, three or more reliable as defined by CS-25 or equivalent (e.g. FAR-25) and independent electrical power sources should be available, each of which should be capable of providing power for all essential services which should at least include the following:

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (i) sufficient instruments for the flight crew providing, as a minimum, attitude, heading, airspeed and altitude information; (ii) appropriate pitot heating; (iii) adequate navigation capability; (iv) adequate radio communication and intercommunication capability; (v) adequate flight deck and instrument lighting and emergency lighting; (vi) adequate flight controls; (vii) adequate engine controls and restart capability with critical type fuel (from the standpoint of flame-out and restart capability) and with the aeroplane initially at the maximum relight altitude; (viii) adequate engine instrumentation; (ix) adequate fuel supply system capability including such fuel boost and fuel transfer functions that may be necessary for extended duration single or dual-engine operation; (x) such warnings, cautions and indications as are required for continued safe flight and landing; (xi) fire protection (engines and auxiliary power unit (APU)); (xii) adequate ice protection including windshield de-icing; and (xiii) adequate control of the flight crew compartment and cabin environment including heating and pressurisation. The equipment including avionics necessary for extended diversion times should have the ability to operate acceptably following failures in the cooling system or electrical power systems. For single-engine operations, the remaining power electrical, hydraulic, and pneumatic should continue to be available at levels necessary to permit continued safe flight and landing, and to provide those services necessary for the overall safety of the passengers and crew. As a minimum, following the failure of any two of the three electrical power sources, the remaining source should be capable of providing power for all of the items necessary for the duration of any diversion. If one or more of the required electrical power sources are provided by an APU, hydraulic system or air driven generator/ram air turbine (ADG/RAT), the following criteria should apply as appropriate: (i) to ensure hydraulic power (hydraulic motor generator) reliability, it may be necessary to provide two or more independent energy sources; (ii) the ADG/RAT, if fitted, should not require engine dependent power for deployment; and (iii) the APU should meet the criteria in (b)(3). (3) APU: the APU, if required for extended range operations, should be certified as an essential APU and should meet the applicable CS-25 and CS-APU provisions or equivalent (e.g. FAR-25). (4) Fuel supply system: consideration should include the capability of the fuel supply system to provide sufficient fuel for the entire diversion taking account of aspects such as fuel boost and fuel transfer.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (c) Engine events and corrective action (1) All engine events and operating hours should be reported by the operator to the airframe and engine supplemental type certificate (STC) holders, as well as to the competent authority. (2) These events should be evaluated by the operator in consultation with the competent authority and with the engine and airframe (S)TC holders. The competent authority may consult EASA the Agency to ensure that worldwide data isare evaluated. (3) Where statistical assessment alone is not applicable, e.g. where the fleet size or accumulated flight hours are small, individual engine events should be reviewed on a case-by-case basis. (4) The evaluation or statistical assessment, when available, may result in corrective action or the application of operational restrictions. (5) Engine events could include engine shutdowns, both on-ground and in-flight, excluding normal training events, including flameout, occurrences where the intended thrust level was not achieved or where crew action was taken to reduce thrust below the normal level for whatever reason, and unscheduled removals. (6) The operator should Arrangements to ensure that all corrective actions required by the Agency competent authority are implemented. (d) Maintenance The maintenance programme in accordance with Annex I to

text: Commission Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014

text: (Part-M) should be based upon reliability programmes including, but not limited to, the following elements: (1) engine oil consumption programmes: such programmes are intended to support engine condition trend monitoring; and (2) engine condition monitoring programme: a programme for each engine that monitors engine performance parameters and trends of degradation that provides for maintenance actions to be undertaken prior to significant performance loss or mechanical failure. (1) The operator’s oil-consumption-monitoring programme should be based on engine manufacturer’s recommendations, if available, and track oil consumption trends. The monitoring should be continuous and take account of the oil added. (2) The engine monitoring programme should also provide for engine condition monitoring describing the parameters to be monitored, the method of data collection and a corrective action process, and should be based on the engine manufacturer’s instructions. This monitoring will be used to detect propulsion system deterioration at an early stage allowing corrective action to be taken before safe operation is affected. (e) Flight crew training

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: The operator should establish a flight Flight crew training programme for this type of operation that should includes, in addition to the requirements of Subpart FC (Flight Crew) of Annex III (Part-ORO)(ORO.FC), particular emphasis on the following: (1) Fuel management: verifying required fuel on board prior to departure and monitoring fuel on board en-routete, including calculation of fuel remaining. Procedures should provide for an independent cross-check of fuel quantity indicators, e.g. fuel flow may be used to calculate the fuel burned, which may be compared with the indicated fuel remaining. It should be confirmed that the fuel remaining is sufficient to satisfy the critical fuel reserves. (2) Procedures for single and multiple failures in flight that may give rise to go/no-go and diversion decisions — policy and guidelines to aid the flight crew in the diversion decision-making process and emphasising the need for constant awareness of the closest weather-permissible alternate aerodrome in terms of time. (3) OEI performance data: drift-down procedures and OEI service ceiling data. (4) WeatherMeteorological reports and flight requirements: meteorological aerodrome reports (METARs) and terminal aerodrome forecast (TAF) reports and obtaining in-flight weather updates on the en-route alternate (ERA), destination and destination alternate aerodromes. Consideration should also be given to forecast winds, including the accuracy of the forecast compared to actual wind experienced during flight and meteorological conditions along the expected flight path at the OEI cruising altitude and throughout the approach and landing. (f) Pre-departure check A pre-departure check, additional to the pre-flight inspection required by Part-M and designed to verify the status of the aeroplane’s significant systems, should be reflected conducted. Adequate status monitoring information on all significant systems should be available to the flight crew to conduct the pre-departure check. The content of the pre-departure check should be and described in the OM operations manual. The operator should ensure that flight Flight crew members who are responsible for the pre-departure check of an aeroplane should arebe fully trained and competent to conduct a pre-departure check of the aeroplane do it. The operator’s required training programme required should cover all relevant tasks, with particular emphasis on checking required fluid levels. (g) MEL The operator should establish in its MEL the minimum equipment that has to be serviceable for non- ETOPS operations between 120 and 180 minutes. The operator should ensure that the The MEL should takes into account all items specified by the manufacturer relevant to this type of operations in accordance with this AMC. (h) Dispatch/flight planning rules The operator’s should establish dispatch procedures rules should that address the following: (1) Fuel and oil supply: for releasing an aeroplane should not be dispatched on an extended range flight, the operator should ensure that unless it carries sufficient fuel and oil to meet comply with the applicable operational requirements and any additional reserves fuel that may be determined in accordance with the following:

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (i) Critical fuel scenario: — in establishing the critical fuel reserves, the applicant is to determine the fuel necessary to fly to the most critical point of the route and execute a diversion to the critical point is the furthest point from an alternate aerodrome assuming a simultaneous failure of an engine and the cabin air pressurisation system. For those aeroplanes that are type certificated to operate above flight level 450, the critical point is the furthest point from an alternate aerodrome assuming an engine failure. The operator should carry additional fuel for the worst-case fuel burn condition (one engine versus two engines operating) if this is greater than the additional fuel calculated in accordance with the fuel requirements in CAT.OP.MPA, as follows, in order to: (A) fly from the critical point to an alternate aerodrome: (a) at 10 000 ft; or (b) at 25 000 ft or the single-engine ceiling, whichever is lower, provided that all occupants can be supplied with and use oxygen for the time required to fly from the critical point to an alternate aerodrome; or (c) at the single-engine ceiling, provided that the aeroplane is type-certified to operate above flight level 450; (B) descend and hold at 1 500 ft for 15 minutes in international standard atmosphere (ISA) standard conditions; (C) descend to the applicable MDA/DH followed by a missed approach (taking into account the complete missed approach procedure); followed by (D) a normal approach and landing. (ii) Ice protection: additional fuel used when operating in icing conditions (e.g. operation of ice protection systems (engine/airframe as applicable)) and, when manufacturer’s data isare available, take account of ice accumulation on unprotected surfaces if icing conditions are likely to be encountered during a diversion. (iii) APU operation: if an APU has to be used to provide additional electrical power, consideration should be given to the additional fuel required. (2) Communication facilities: the operator should ensure the availability of communications facilities in order to allow reliable two-way voice communications between the aeroplane and the appropriate ATC unit at OEI cruise altitudes. (3) Aircraft technical log review to ensure that proper MEL procedures, deferred items, and required maintenance checks have been completed. (4) ERA aerodrome(s): the operator should ensure ensuring that ERA aerodromes are available for the intended route, within the distance flown in 180 minutes based upon the OEI cruising speed, which is a speed within the certificated limits of the aeroplane, selected by the operator and approved by the competent authority, confirming that, based on the available meteorological information, the weather conditions at ERA aerodromes are at or above the applicable minima for the applicable period of time , in accordance with CAT.OP.MPA.185during which the aerodrome(s) may be used.

text: Table 1:

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: Planning minima

text: Approach facility Alternate aerodrome ceiling Weather minima

text: RVR/VIS

text: PA DA/H + 200 ft RVR/VIS + 800 m NPA MDA/H + 400 ft RVR/VIS + 1 500 m Circling approach

text: GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.140(d) Maximum distance from an adequate aerodrome for two-engined aeroplanes without an ETOPS approval

text: SIGNIFICANT SYSTEMS (a) Definition: Significant systems to be checked are the aeroplane propulsion system and any other aeroplane systems whose failure could adversely affect the safety of a non-ETOPS diversion flight, or whose functioning is important to continued safe flight and landing during an aeroplane diversion. (b) When defining the pre-departure check, the operator should give consideration, at least, to the following systems: (1) electrical; (2) hydraulic; (3) pneumatic; (4) flight instrumentation, including warning and caution systems; (5) fuel, including potential leakage, fuel drains, fuel boost and fuel transfer; (6) flight control; (7) ice protection; (8) engine start and ignition; (9) propulsion system instruments; (10) engine thrust reversers; (11) navigation and communications, including any route specific long-range navigation and communication equipment; (12) back-up power systems (i.e. emergency generator and auxiliary power unit); (13) air conditioning and pressurisation; (14) cargo fire detection and suppression; (15) propulsion system fire detection and suppression; (16) emergency equipment (e.g. ELT, hand fire extinguisher, etc.).

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.250 Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures

text: TERMINOLOGY Terms used in the context of de-icing/anti-icing have the meaning defined in the following subparagraphs. (a) ‘Anti-icing fluid’ includes, but is not limited to, the following: (1) Type I fluid if heated to minimum 60°C at the nozzle; (2) mixture of water and Type I fluid if heated to minimum 60°C at the nozzle; (3) Type II fluid; (4) mixture of water and Type II fluid; (5) Type III fluid; (6) mixture of water and Type III fluid; (7) Type IV fluid; (8) mixture of water and Type IV fluid. On uncontaminated aircraft surfaces, Type II, III and IV anti-icing fluids are normally applied unheated. (b) ‘Clear ice’: a coating of ice, generally clear and smooth, but with some air pockets. It forms on exposed objects, the temperatures of which are at, below or slightly above the freezing temperature, by the freezing of super-cooled drizzle, droplets or raindrops. (c) Conditions conducive to aircraft icing on the ground (e.g. freezing fog, freezing precipitation, frost, rain or high humidity (on cold soaked wings), snow or mixed rain and snow). (d) ‘Contamination’, in this context, is understood as being all forms of frozen or semi-frozen moisture, such as frost, snow, slush or ice. (e) ‘Contamination check’: a check of aircraft for contamination to establish the need for de-icing. (f) ‘De-icing fluid’: such fluid includes, but is not limited to, the following: (1) heated water; (2) Type I fluid; (3) mixture of water and Type I fluid; (4) Type II fluid; (5) mixture of water and Type II fluid; (6) Type III fluid; (7) mixture of water and Type III fluid; (8) Type IV fluid; (9) mixture of water and Type IV fluid.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: De-icing fluid is normally applied heated to ensure maximum efficiency. (g) ‘De-icing/anti-icing’: this is the combination of de-icing and anti-icing performed in either one or two steps. (h) ‘Ground ice detection system (GIDS)’: system used during aircraft ground operations to inform the personnel involved in the operation and/or the flight crew about the presence of frost, ice, snow or slush on the aircraft surfaces. (i) ‘Lowest operational use temperature (LOUT)’: the lowest temperature at which a fluid has been tested and certified as acceptable in accordance with the appropriate aerodynamic acceptance test whilst still maintaining a freezing point buffer of not less than: (1) 10°C for a Type I de-icing/anti-icing fluid; or (2) 7°C for Type II, III or IV de-icing/anti-icing fluids. (j) ‘Post-treatment check’: an external check of the aircraft after de-icing and/or anti-icing treatment accomplished from suitably elevated observation points (e.g. from the de-icing/anti-icing equipment itself or other elevated equipment) to ensure that the aircraft is free from any frost, ice, snow, or slush. (k) ‘Pre-take-off check’: an assessment normally performed by the flight crew, to validate the applied HoT. (l) ‘Pre-take-off contamination check’: a check of the treated surfaces for contamination, performed when the HoT has been exceeded or if any doubt exists regarding the continued effectiveness of the applied anti-icing treatment. It is normally accomplished externally, just before commencement of the take-off run. ANTI-ICING CODES (m) The following are examples of anti-icing codes: (1) ‘Type I’ at (start time) — to be used if anti-icing treatment has been performed with a Type I fluid; (2) ‘Type II/100’ at (start time) — to be used if anti-icing treatment has been performed with undiluted Type II fluid; (3) ‘Type II/75’ at (start time) — to be used if anti-icing treatment has been performed with a mixture of 75 % Type II fluid and 25 % water; (4) ‘Type IV/50’ at (start time) — to be used if anti-icing treatment has been performed with a mixture of 50 % Type IV fluid and 50 % water. (n) When a two-step de-icing/anti-icing operation has been carried out, the anti-icing code should be determined by the second step fluid. Fluid brand names may be included, if desired. (a) ‘Anti-icing’: the process of protecting the aircraft to prevent contamination due to existing or expected weather, typically by applying anti-icing fluids on uncontaminated aircraft surfaces. (b) ‘Anti-icing fluid’ includes, but is not limited to, the following: (1) Typically, Type II, III or IV fluid (neat or diluted), normally applied unheated (*); (2) Type I fluid/water mixture heated to minimum 60°C at the nozzle.

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text: (*) When de-icing and anti-icing in a one-step process, Type II and Type IV fluids are typically applied diluted and heated. (c) ‘Clear ice’: a coating of ice, generally clear and smooth, but with some air pockets. It forms on exposed objects, the temperatures of which are at, below or slightly above the freezing temperature, by the freezing of super-cooled drizzle, droplets or raindrops. Clear ice is very difficult to be detected visually. (d) ‘Cold soaked surface frost (CSSF)’: frost developed on cold soaked aircraft surfaces by sublimation of air humidity. This effect can take place at ambient temperatures above 0° C. Cold soaked aircraft surfaces are more common on aircraft that have recently landed. External surfaces of fuel tanks (e.g. wing skins) are typical areas of CSSF formation (known in this case as cold soaked fuel frost (CSFF)), due to the thermal inertia of very cold fuel that remains on the tanks after landing. (e) ‘Conditions conducive to aircraft icing on the ground’: freezing fog, freezing precipitation, frost, rain or high humidity (on cold soaked wings), hail, ice pellets, snow or mixed rain and snow, etc. (f) ‘Contamination’: all forms of frozen or semi-frozen deposits on an aircraft, such as frost, snow, slush or ice. (g) ‘Contamination check’: a check of the aircraft for contamination to establish the need for de-icing. (h) ‘De-icing’: the process of eliminating frozen contamination from aircraft surfaces, typically by applying de-icing fluids. (i) ‘De-icing fluid’: such fluid includes, but is not limited to, the following: (1) Heated water; (2) Preferably, Type I fluid (neat or diluted (typically)); (3) Type II, III or IV fluid (neat or diluted). The de-icing fluid is normally applied heated to ensure maximum efficiency and its freezing point should be at the outside air temperature (OAT) or below. (j) ‘De-icing/anti-icing’: this is the combination of de-icing and anti-icing performed in either one or two steps. (k) ‘Ground ice detection system (GIDS)’: a system used during aircraft ground operations to inform the personnel involved in the operation and/or the flight crew about the presence of frost, ice, snow or slush on the aircraft surfaces. (l) ‘Holdover time (HOT)’: the period of time during which an anti-icing fluid provides protection against frozen contamination to the treated aircraft surfaces. It depends among other variables, on the type and intensity of the precipitation, OAT, wind, the particular fluid (or fluid Type) and aircraft design and aircraft configuration during the treatment. (m) ‘Liquid water equivalent (LWE) system’: an automated weather measurement system that determines the LWE precipitation rate in conditions of frozen or freezing precipitation. The system provides flight crew with continuously updated information on the fluid protection capability under varying weather conditions. (n) ‘Lowest operational use temperature (LOUT)’: the lowest temperature at which a fluid has been tested and certified as acceptable in accordance with the appropriate aerodynamic acceptance test whilst still maintaining a freezing point buffer of not less than:

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text: (1) 10°C for a Type I fluid; or (2) 7°C for Type II, III or IV fluids. (o) ‘Post-treatment check’, ‘Post- de-icing check’ or ‘Post- de-icing/anti-icing check’: an external check of the aircraft after de-icing and/or anti-icing treatment accomplished by qualified staff and from suitably elevated observation points (e.g. from the de-icing/anti-icing equipment itself or other elevated equipment) to ensure that the aircraft is free from frost, ice, snow, or slush. (p) ‘Pre-take-off check’: The flight crew should continuously monitor the weather conditions after the deicing/anti-icing treatment to assess whether the applied holdover time is still appropriate. Within the aircraft’s HOT and prior to take-off, the flight crew should check the aircraft’s wings or representative aircraft surfaces for frozen contaminants. (q) ‘Pre-take-off contamination check’: a check of the treated surfaces for contamination, performed when the HOT has been exceeded or if any doubt exists regarding the continued effectiveness of the applied anti-icing treatment. It is normally accomplished externally, just before commencement of the take-off run. ANTI-ICING CODES (r) Upon completion of the anti-icing treatment, a qualified staff provides the anti-icing code to the flight crew as follows: ‘the fluid Type/the fluid name (except for Type I)/concentration (except for Type I)/local time at start of anti-icing/date (optional)/the statement ‘post- de-icing/anti-icing check completed’ (if check completed). Example: ‘TYPE II / MANUFACTURER, BRAND X / 75% / 1335 / 15FEB20 / POST- DE-ICING/ANTI-ICING CHECK COMPLETED’. (s) When a two-step de-icing/anti-icing operation has been carried out, the anti-icing code should be determined by the second step fluid.

text: GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.250 Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures

text: DE-ICING/ANTI-ICING — PROCEDURES (a) De-icing and/or anti-icing procedures should take into account manufacturer’s recommendations, including those that are type-specific and cover: (1) contamination checks, including detection of clear ice and under-wing frost; limits on the thickness/area of contamination published in the AFM or other manufacturers’ documentation should be followed; (2) procedures to be followed if de-icing and/or anti-icing procedures are interrupted or unsuccessful; (3) post-treatment checks; (4) pre-take-off checks; (5) pre-take-off contamination checks; (6) the recording of any incidents relating to de-icing and/or anti-icing; and

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text: (7) the responsibilities of all personnel involved in de-icing and/or anti-icing. (b) Operator’s procedures should ensure the following: (1) When aircraft surfaces are contaminated by ice, frost, slush or snow, they are de-iced prior to take-off according to the prevailing conditions. Removal of contaminants may be performed with mechanical tools, fluids (including hot water), infrared heat or forced air, taking account of aircraft type-specific provisions. (2) Account is taken of the wing skin temperature versus outside air temperature (OAT), as this may affect: (i) the need to carry out aircraft de-icing and/or anti-icing; and/or (ii) the performance of the de-icing/anti-icing fluids. (3) When freezing precipitation occurs or there is a risk of freezing precipitation occurring that would contaminate the surfaces at the time of take-off, aircraft surfaces should be anti-iced. If both de-icing and anti-icing are required, the procedure may be performed in a one- or two-step process, depending upon weather conditions, available equipment, available fluids and the desired hold-over time (HoT). One-step de-icing/anti-icing means that de-icing and anti-icing are carried out at the same time, using a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. Two-step deicing/anti-icing means that de-icing and anti-icing are carried out in two separate steps. The aircraft is first de-iced using heated water only or a heated mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. After completion of the de-icing operation, a layer of a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water, or of de-icing/anti-icing fluid only, is sprayed over the aircraft surfaces. The second step will be taken before the first-step fluid freezes, typically within three minutes and, if necessary, area by area. (3) When freezing precipitation occurs or there is a risk of freezing precipitation occurring that would contaminate the surfaces at the time of take-off, aircraft surfaces should be anti-iced. Anti-icing fluids (neat or diluted) should not be applied at OAT below their LOUT. If both de-icing and anti-icing are required, the procedure may be performed in a one- or two-step process, depending upon weather conditions, available equipment, available fluids and the desired HOT. One-step de-icing/anti-icing means that de-icing and anti-icing are carried out at the same time, using a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. Two-step de-icing/anti-icing means that de-icing and anti-icing are carried out in two separate steps. The aircraft is first de-iced using heated water only or a heated mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water. After completion of the de-icing operation, a layer of a mixture of de-icing/anti-icing fluid and water, or of deicing /anti-icing fluid only, is sprayed over the aircraft surfaces. The second step will be taken before the first step fluid freezes (typically within 3 minutes but severe conditions may shorten this) and, if necessary, area by area. (4) When an aircraft is anti-iced and a longer HoTHOT is needed/desired, the use of a less diluted Type II or Type IV thickened fluid may be considered. (5) All restrictions relative to OAT and fluid application (including, but not necessarily limited to, temperature and pressure) published by the fluid manufacturer and/or aircraft manufacturer, are followed and procedures, limitations and recommendations to prevent the formation of fluid residues are followed.

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text: (6) During conditions conducive to aircraft icing on the ground or after de-icing and/or anti-icing, an aircraft is not dispatched for departure unless it has been given a contamination check or a post-treatment check by a trained and qualified person. This check should cover all treated surfaces of the aircraft and be performed from points offering sufficient accessibility visibility to these parts. To ensure that there is no clear ice on suspect areas, it may also be necessary to make a physical check (e.g. tactile). (7) The required entry is made in the technical log. (8) The commander continually monitors the environmental situation after the performed treatment. Prior to take-off, he/she performs a pre-take-off check, which is an assessment of whether the applied HoTHOT is still appropriate. This pre-take-off check includes, but is not limited to, factors such as precipitation, wind and OAT. (9) If any doubt exists as to whether a deposit may adversely affect the aircraft’s performance and/or controllability characteristics, the commander should arrange for a re-treatment or a pre-take-off contamination check to be performed in order to verify that the aircraft’s surfaces are free of contamination. Special methods and/or equipment may be necessary to perform this check, especially at night time or in extremely adverse weather conditions. If this check cannot be performed just before take-off, re-treatment should be applied. (10) When re-treatment is necessary, any residue of the previous treatment should be removed, and a completely new de-icing/anti-icing treatment should be applied. (11) When a ground ice detection system (GIDS) is used to perform an aircraft surfaces check prior to and/or after a treatment, the use of GIDS by suitably trained personnel should be part of the procedure. (c) Special operational considerations (1) When using thickened de-icing/anti-icing fluids, the operator should consider a two-step deicing/anti-icing procedure, the first step preferably with hot water and/or un-thickened fluids. (2) The use of de-icing/anti-icing fluids should be in accordance with the aircraft manufacturer’s documentation. This is particularly important for thickened fluids to assure sufficient flow-off during take-off. Avoid applying excessive thickened fluid on the horizontal tail of aircraft with unpowered elevator controls. (3) The operator should comply with any type-specific operational provision(s), such as an aircraft mass decrease and/or a take-off speed increase associated with a fluid application. (4) The operator should take into account any flight handling procedures (stick force, rotation speed and rate, take-off speed, aircraft attitude etc.) laid down by the aircraft manufacturer when associated with a fluid application. (5) The limitations or handling procedures resulting from (c)(3) and/or (c)(4) above should be part of the flight crew pre take-off briefing. (d) Communications (1) Before aircraft treatment. When the aircraft is to be treated with the flight crew on board, the flight and personnel involved in the operation should confirm the fluid to be used, the extent of

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text: treatment required and any aircraft type-specific procedure(s) to be used. Any other information needed to apply the HoTHOT tables should be exchanged. (2) Anti-icing code. The operator’s procedures should include an anti-icing code, which indicates the treatment the aircraft has received. This code provides the flight crew with the minimum details necessary to estimate a HoTHOT and confirms that the aircraft is free of contamination. (3) After treatment. Before reconfiguring or moving the aircraft, the flight crew should receive a confirmation from the qualified personnel involved in the operation that all de-icing and/or antiicing operations are complete and that all personnel and equipment are clear of the aircraft. (e) Holdover protection & LWE systems The operator should publish in the operations manual, when required, the HoTs in the form of a table or a diagram, to account for the various types of ground icing conditions and the different types and concentrations of fluids used. However, the times of protection shown in these tables are to be used as guidelines only and are normally used in conjunction with the pre-take-off check. The operator should publish in the OM, when required, the HOTs in the form of a table or a diagram, to account for the various types of ground icing conditions and the different types and concentrations of fluids used. However, the times of protection shown in these tables are to be used as guidelines only and are normally used in conjunction with the pre-take-off check. An operator may choose to operate using LWE systems instead of HOT tables whenever the required means for using these systems are in place. (f) Training The operator’s initial and recurrent de-icing and/or anti-icing training programmes (including communication training) for flight crew and those of its personnel involved in the operation who are involved in de-icing and/or anti-icing should include additional training if any of the following is introduced: The operator’s initial and recurrent de-icing training programmes (including communication training) for flight crew and for other personnel involved in de-icing operations should include additional training if any of the following is introduced: (1) a new method, procedure and/or technique; (2) a new type of fluid and/or equipment; or (3) a new type of aircraft. (g) Contracting When the operator contracts de-icing/anti-icing functions, the operator should ensure that the contractor complies with the operator’s training/qualification procedures, together with any specific procedures in respect of: (1) de-icing and/or anti-icing methods and procedures; (2) fluids to be used, including precautions for storage and preparation for use; (3) specific aircraft provisions (e.g. no-spray areas, propeller/engine de-icing, APU operation etc.); and

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text: (4) checking and communications procedures. (1) roles and responsibilities; (2) de-icing and/or anti-icing methods and procedures; (3) fluids to be used, including precautions for storage, preparation for use and chemical incompatibilities; (4) specific aircraft provisions (e.g. no-spray areas, propeller/engine de-icing, APU operation, etc.); (5) different checks to be conducted; and (6) procedures for communications with flight crew and any other third party involved. (h) Special maintenance considerations (1) General The operator should take proper account of the possible side-effects of fluid use. Such effects may include, but are not necessarily limited to, dried and/or re-hydrated residues, corrosion and the removal of lubricants. (2) Special considerations regarding residues of dried fluids The operator should establish procedures to prevent or detect and remove residues of dried fluid. If necessary, the operator should establish appropriate inspection intervals based on the recommendations of the airframe manufacturers and/or the operator’s own experience: (i) Dried fluid residues Dried fluid residues could occur when surfaces have been treated and the aircraft has not subsequently been flown and has not been subject to precipitation. The fluid may then have dried on the surfaces. (ii) Re-hydrated fluid residues Repetitive application of thickened de-icing/anti-icing fluids may lead to the subsequent formation/build-up of a dried residue in aerodynamically quiet areas, such as cavities and gaps. This residue may re-hydrate if exposed to high humidity conditions, precipitation, washing, etc., and increase to many times its original size/volume. This residue will freeze if exposed to conditions at or below 0 °C. This may cause moving parts, such as elevators, ailerons, and flap actuating mechanisms to stiffen or jam inflight. Re-hydrated residues may also form on exterior surfaces, which can reduce lift, increase drag and stall speed. Re-hydrated residues may also collect inside control surface structures and cause clogging of drain holes or imbalances to flight controls. Residues may also collect in hidden areas, such as around flight control hinges, pulleys, grommets, on cables and in gaps. (iii) Operators are strongly recommended to obtain information about the fluid dry-out and re-hydration characteristics from the fluid manufacturers and to select products with optimised characteristics. (iv) Additional information should be obtained from fluid manufacturers for handling, storage, application and testing of their products.

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text: GM3 CAT.OP.MPA.250 Ice and other contaminants — ground procedures

text: DE-ICING/ANTI-ICING BACKGROUND INFORMATION Further guidance material on this issue is given in the ICAO Manual of Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing Operations (Doc 9640) (hereinafter referred to as the ICAO Manual of Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing Operations). (a) General (1) Any deposit of frost, ice, snow or slush on the external surfaces of an aircraft may drastically affect its flying qualities because of reduced aerodynamic lift, increased drag and modified stability and control characteristics. Furthermore, freezing deposits may cause moving parts, such as elevators, ailerons, flap actuating mechanism etc., to jam and create a potentially hazardous condition. Propeller/engine/auxiliary power unit (APU)/systems performance may deteriorate due to the presence of frozen contaminants on blades, intakes and components. Also, engine operation may be seriously affected by the ingestion of snow or ice, thereby causing engine stall or compressor damage. In addition, ice/frost may form on certain external surfaces (e.g. wing upper and lower surfaces, etc.) due to the effects of cold fuel/structures, even in ambient temperatures well above 0 °C. (2) Procedures established by the operator for de-icing and/or anti-icing are intended to ensure that the aircraft is clear of contamination so that degradation of aerodynamic characteristics or mechanical interference will not occur and, following anti-icing, to maintain the airframe in that condition during the appropriate HoTHOT. (3) Under certain meteorological conditions, de-icing and/or anti-icing procedures may be ineffective in providing sufficient protection for continued operations. Examples of these conditions are freezing rain, ice pellets and hail, heavy snow, high wind velocity, fast dropping OAT or any time when freezing precipitation with high water content is present. No HoT guidelines exist for these conditions. (3) Under certain meteorological conditions, de-icing and/or anti-icing procedures may be ineffective in providing sufficient protection for continued operations. Examples of these conditions are freezing rain, ice pellets and hail snow exceeding certain intensities, high wind velocity, and fast-dropping OAT. No HOT guidelines exist for these conditions. (4) Material for establishing operational procedures can be found, for example, in: (i) ICAO Annex 3, Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation; (ii) ICAO Manual of Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing Operations; (iii) ISO 11075 Aircraft - De-icing/anti-icing fluids - ISO type I; (iv) ISO 11076 Aircraft - De-icing/anti-icing methods with fluids; (v) ISO 11077 Aerospace - Self propelled de-icing/anti-icing vehicles - Functional requirements; (vi) ISO 11078 Aircraft - De-icing/anti-icing fluids -- ISO types II, III and IV; (vii) AEA ‘Recommendations for de-icing/anti-icing of aircraft on the ground’;

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text: (viii) AEA ‘Training recommendations and background information for de-icing/anti-icing of aircraft on the ground’; (ix) EUROCAE ED-104A Minimum Operational Performance Specification for Ground Ice Detection Systems; (x) SAE AS5681 Minimum Operational Performance Specification for Remote On-Ground Ice Detection Systems; (xi) SAE ARP4737 Aircraft - De-icing/anti-icing methods; (xii) SAE AMS1424 De-icing/anti-Icing Fluid, Aircraft, SAE Type I; (xiii) SAE AMS1428 Fluid, Aircraft De-icing/anti-Icing, Non-Newtonian, (Pseudoplastic), SAE Types II, III, and IV; (xiv) SAE ARP1971 Aircraft De-icing Vehicle - Self-Propelled, Large and Small Capacity; (xv) SAE ARP5149 Training Programme Guidelines for De-icing/anti-icing of Aircraft on Ground; and (xvi) SAE ARP5646 Quality Program Guidelines for De-icing/anti-icing of Aircraft on the Ground. (i) ICAO Annex 3 ‘Meteorological Service for International Air Navigation’; (ii) ICAO ‘Manual of Aircraft Ground De-icing/Anti-icing Operations’; (iii) SAE AS6285 ‘Aircraft Ground Deicing/Anti-Icing Processes’; (iv) SAE AS6286 ‘Aircraft Ground Deicing/Anti-Icing Training and Qualification Program’; (iv) SAE AS6332 ‘Aircraft Ground Deicing/Anti-icing Quality Management’; (v) SAE ARP6257 ‘Aircraft Ground De/Anti-Icing Communication Phraseology for Flight and Ground Crews’; (vi) FAA Holdover Time Guidelines (vii) FAA 8900.xxx series Notice ‘Revised FAA-Approved Deicing Program Updates, Winter 20xx-20yy’. (b) Fluids (1) Type I fluid: Due to its properties, Type I fluid forms a thin, liquid-wetting film on surfaces to which it is applied which, under certain weather conditions, gives a very limited HoT. With this type of fluid, increasing the concentration of fluid in the fluid/water mix does not provide any extension in HoT. (2) Type II and Type IV fluids contain thickeners which enable the fluid to form a thicker liquidwetting film on surfaces to which it is applied. Generally, this fluid provides a longer HoT than Type I fluids in similar conditions. With this type of fluid, the HoT can be extended by increasing the ratio of fluid in the fluid/water mix. (1) Type I fluid: Due to its properties, Type I fluid forms a thin, liquid-wetting film on surfaces to which it is applied which, under certain weather conditions, gives a very limited HOT. For antiicing purposes the fluid/water mixture should have a freezing point of at least 10 °C below OAT;

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text: increasing the concentration of fluid in the fluid/water mix does not provide any extension in HOT. (2) Type II and Type IV fluids contain thickeners which enable the fluid to form a thicker liquidwetting film on surfaces to which it is applied. Generally, this fluid provides a longer HOT than Type I fluids in similar conditions. (3) Type III fluid is a thickened fluid especially intended for use on aircraft with low rotation speeds. (4) Fluids used for de-icing and/or anti-icing should be acceptable to the operator and the aircraft manufacturer. These fluids normally conform to specifications such as SAE AMS1424, SAE AMS1428 or equivalent. Use of non-conforming fluids is not recommended due to their characteristics being unknown. The anti-icing and aerodynamic properties of thickened fluids may be seriously degraded by, for example, inappropriate storage, treatment, application, application equipment and age. (4) Fluids used for de-icing and/or anti-icing should be acceptable to the operator and the aircraft manufacturer. These fluids normally conform to specifications such as SAE AMS1424 (Type I) or SAE AMS1428 (Types II, III and IV). Use of non-conforming fluids is not recommended due to their characteristics being unknown. The anti-icing and aerodynamic properties of thickened fluids may be seriously degraded by, for example, inappropriate storage, treatment, application, application equipment, age and in case they are applied on top of non-chemically compatible de-icing fluids. (c) Holdover protection (1) Holdover protection is achieved by a layer of anti-icing fluid remaining on and protecting aircraft surfaces for a period of time. With a one-step de-icing/anti-icing procedure, the HoTHOT begins at the commencement of de-icing/anti-icing. With a two-step procedure, the HoTHOT begins at the commencement of the second (anti-icing) step. The holdover protection runs out: (i) at the commencement of the take-off roll (due to aerodynamic shedding of fluid); or (ii) when frozen deposits start to form or accumulate on treated aircraft surfaces, thereby indicating the loss of effectiveness of the fluid. (2) The duration of holdover protection may vary depending on the influence of factors other than those specified in the HoTHOT tables. Guidance should be provided by the operator to take account of such factors, which may include: (i) atmospheric conditions, e.g. exact type and rate of precipitation, wind direction and velocity, relative humidity and solar radiation; and (ii) the aircraft and its surroundings, such as aircraft component inclination angle, contour and surface roughness, surface temperature, operation in close proximity to other aircraft (jet or propeller blast) and ground equipment and structures. (3) HoTHOTs are not meant to imply that flight is safe in the prevailing conditions if the specified HoTHOT has not been exceeded. Once airborne, certain meteorological conditions, such as freezing drizzle or freezing rain, may be beyond the certification envelope of the aircraft.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.300(a) Approach and landing conditions — aeroplanes

text: IN-FLIGHT DETERMINATION OF THE LANDING DISTANCE ASSESSMENT (a) The in-flight determination of the landing distance assessment should be based on the latest available meteorological weather report orand runway statecondition report (RCR) or equivalent information based on the RCR, preferably not more than 30 minutes before the expected landing time. (b) The assessment should be initially carried out when the weather report and the RCR are obtained, usually around top of descent. If the planned duration of the flight does not allow the flight crew to carry out the assessment in non-critical phases of flight, the assessment should be carried out before departure. (c) When meteorological conditions may lead to a degradation of the runway surface condition, the assessment should include consideration of how much deterioration in runway surface friction characteristics may be tolerated, so that a quick decision can be made prior to landing. (d) The flight crew should monitor the evolution of the actual conditions during the approach, to ensure that they do not degrade below the condition that was previously determined to be the minimum acceptable.

text: GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.300(a) Approach and landing conditions — aeroplanes

text: WIND DATA The information on wind contained in METAR/SPECI/ATIS reports (average of a 10-minute period) should be the basis for the landing performance calculations, while instant wind information reported by the tower should be monitored during the approach to ensure that the wind speed does not exceed the assumptions made for landing performance calculations.

text: AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.301 Approach and landing conditions — helicopters

text: IN-FLIGHT DETERMINATION OF THE CONDITION OF THE FATO The in-flight determination of the final approach and take-off area (FATO) suitability for a safe approach, landing or missed approach should be based on the latest available meteorological or runway condition report, preferably no more than 30 minutes before the expected landing time.

text: AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.303 In-flight check of the landing distance at time of arrival — aeroplanes

text: ASSESSMENT OF THE LDTA BASED ON DISPATCH CRITERIA (a) The required landing distance for dry runways, determined in accordance with CAT.POL.A.230(a), contains adequate margin to fulfil the intent of the assessment of the landing distance at time of arrival (LDTA) on a dry runway, as it includes allowance for the additional parameters considered in that calculation.

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text: (b) The required landing distance for wet runways also contains adequate margin to fulfil the intent of the assessment of the LDTA on such runways with specific friction-improving characteristics, as it includes allowance for the additional parameters considered in that calculation. (c) When at the time of arrival the runway is dry or is a wet runway with specific friction-improving characteristics and the overall conditions, including weather at the aerodrome and runway condition, have been confirmed as not changed significantly compared to those assumed at the time of dispatch, the assessment of the LDTA may be carried out by confirming that the assumptions made at the time of dispatch are still valid. (d) Before taking any performance credit for the assessment of the LDTA for runways with frictionimproving characteristics, the operator should verify that the runways intended to be operated on are maintained to the extent necessary to ensure the expected improved friction characteristics.

text: GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.303 In-flight check of the landing distance at time of arrival — aeroplanes

text: GENERAL The assessment of the LDTA begins with the acquisition of the latest available weather information and the RCR. The information provided in the RCR is divided in two sections: (a) The ‘aircraft performance’ section which contains information that is directly relevant in a performance computation. (b) The ‘situational awareness’ section which contains information that the flight crew should be aware of for a safe operation, but which does not have a direct impact on the performance assessment. The ‘aircraft performance’ section of the RCR includes a runway condition code (RWYCC), the contaminant type, depth and coverage for each third of the runway. The determination of the RWYCC is based on the use of the runway condition assessment matrix (RCAM); however, the presentation of the information in the RCAM is appropriate for use by aerodrome personnel trained and competent in assessing the runway condition in a way that is relevant to aircraft performance. It is the task of the aerodrome personnel to report the appropriate RWYCC in order to allow the flight crew to assess the landing performance characteristics of the runway in use. When no RWYCC is available in winter conditions, the RCAM provides the flight crew with a combination of the relevant information (runway surface conditions: state and/or contaminant or pilot report of braking action (AIREP)) in order to determine the RWYCC. Table 1 below is an excerpt of the RCAM and permits to carry out the primary assessment based on the reported contaminant type and depth, as well as on the OAT.

text: Table 1: Association between the runway surface condition and the RWYCC based on the reported contaminant type and depth and on the OAT

text: Runway Surface surface condition Depth Notes RWYCC condition descriptor

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: Dry n/a 6

text: Damp Including wet

text: and (any visible contaminated dampness) Wet 3 mm or less runways below 5

text: 25 % coverage in

text: Wet each runway

text: third

text: Slippery wet 3

text: At or below OAT 3 4 – 15 °C Compacted Any snow Above OAT 3 3 – 15 °C

text: 3 mm or less 5

text: Including when More than any depth occurs Dry snow 3 mm up to 3 on top of 100 mm compacted snow

text: Any On top of ice 0

text: Frost Any 5

text: In cold and dry Ice Any 1 conditions

text: 3 mm or less 5

text: Contaminated More than Slush 3 mm up to 2

text: 15 mm

text: 3 mm or less 5

text: More than Standing 3 mm up to 2 water 15 mm

text: Any On top of ice 0

text: Wet ice Any 0

text: 3 mm or less 5

text: Including when More than any depth occurs Wet snow 3 mm up to 3 on top of 30 mm compacted snow

text: Any On top of ice 0

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: Note 1: Under certain conditions, frost may cause the surface to become very slippery. Note 2: Operations in conditions where less-than-poor braking action prevails are prohibited. Note 3: The runway surface temperature should preferably be used where available. A primary assessment may have to be downgraded by the aerodrome operator based on an AIREP of lower braking action than the one typically associated with the type and depth of contaminant on the runway or any other observation. Upgrading a RWYCC 5, 4, 3 or 2 determined by the aerodrome operator from the observed contaminant type is not allowed. A RWYCC 1 or 0 maybe be upgraded by the aerodrome operator to a maximum of RWYCC 3. The reason for the upgrade will be specified in the ‘situational awareness’ section of the RCR. When the aerodrome operator is approved for operations on specially prepared winter runways, in accordance with Annex V (Part-ADR.OPS) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 139/2014

text: , the RWYCC of a runway that is contaminated with compacted snow or ice, may be reported as RWYCC 4 depending upon a specific treatment of the runway. In such cases, the reason for the upgrade will be specified in the ‘situational awareness’ section of the RCR. When the aerodrome operator is approved for specially prepared winter runways, in accordance with Annex IV (Part-ADR.OPS) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 139/2014

text: , a runway that is contaminated with compacted snow or ice and has been treated according to specific procedures, will normally be reported as a maximum of RWYCC 4 SPECIALLY PREPARED WINTER RUNWAY. If the aerodrome operator is in doubt about the quality of the surface, it will be reported with a lower RWYCC, but the runway descriptor will still be SPECIALLY PREPARED WINTER RUNWAY. The term DOWNGRADED will be used in the ‘situational awareness’ section of the RCR. A SPECIALLY PREPARED WINTER RUNWAY has no loose contaminant; hence no contaminant drag on acceleration, and stopping performance corresponding to the reported RWYCC. Performance information for the assessment of the LDTA correlates the aircraft performance with the RWYCC contained in the RCR, hence the calculation will be based on the RWYCC of the intended runway of landing.

text: GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.303 In-flight check of the landing distance at time of arrival — aeroplanes

text: RUNWAY CONDITION CONSIDERATIONS When available for the portion of the runway that will be used for landing, the following elements are relevant for consideration: (a) RWYCC; (b) expected runway conditions (contaminant type and depth); (c) other information contained in the RCR related to the following elements: (1) width of the runway to which the RWYCC applies if less than the published runway width; (2) reduced runway length; (3) drifting snow on the runway;

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (4) loose sand on the runway; (5) chemical treatment on the runway; (6) snowbanks on the runway; (7) snowbanks on taxiways; (8) snowbanks adjacent to the runway; (9) taxiway conditions; (10) apron conditions; (11) State approved and published use of measured friction coefficient; (12) plain language remarks; (d) AIREP of braking action. AIRCRAFT PERFORMANCE CONSIDERATIONS The following elements may impact landing distance calculations: (a) runway slope; (b) aerodrome elevation; (c) wind; (d) temperature; (e) aeroplane mass and configuration; (f) approach speed at threshold; (g) eventual adjustments to the landing distance, such as autoland; and (h) planned use of available and operative aeroplane ground deceleration devices. AUTOBRAKE USAGE While autobrakes are a part of the aeroplane’s landing configuration, the landing distance assessment at the time of arrival is not intended to force a higher-than-necessary autobrake selection. For operations where the RWYCC is 6 or 5, if the manual braking distance provides at least 15 % safety margin, then the braking technique may include a combination of autobrakes and manual braking even if the selected autobrake landing data does not provide a 15 % safety margin. GENERAL Background information and further guidance on the in-flight check of the LDTA may be found in ICAO Doc 10064 ‘Aeroplane Performance Manual’.

text: GM3 CAT.OP.MPA.303 In-flight check of the landing distance at time of arrival — aeroplanes

text: RCR, RWYCC AND RCAM A detailed description of the RCR format and content, the RWYCC and the RCAM may be found in Annex V (Part-ADR.OPS) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 139/2014

text: . Further guidance may be found in the following documents:

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (a) ICAO Doc 9981 ‘PANS Aerodromes’; (b) ICAO Doc 4444 ‘PANS ATM’; (c) ICAO Doc 10064 ‘Aeroplane Performance Manual’; and (d) ICAO Circular 355 ‘Assessment, Measurement and Reporting of Runway Surface Conditions’.

text: AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.303(e) In-flight check of the landing distance at time of arrival — aeroplanes

text: PERFORMANCE INFORMATION FOR THE ASSESSMENT OF THE LDTA — APPROVED DATA Approved data for the assessment of the LDTA contained in the AFM should be developed in accordance with AMC 25.1592, or equivalent. PERFORMANCE INFORMATION FOR THE ASSESSMENT OF THE LDTA — SUPPLEMENTARY DATA When approved data for the assessment of the LDTA contained in the AFM is insufficient, the content of the AFM should be supplemented with one of the following sets of data, provided by the aircraft manufacturer or the type certificate holder (TCH) or an organisation approved under Part 21 and having the relevant privileges within the scope of its organisation approval: (a) Data for the assessment of the LDTA produced for aeroplanes not having CS 25.1592 or equivalent in their certification basis. Such data may be presented in terms of runway surface conditions, pilotreported braking actions, or both, and should include at least: (1) an operational airborne distance; (2) the range of braking actions as related to the RWYCC; (3) the effect of speed increments over threshold; (4) the effect of temperature; and (5) the effect of runway slope. When data is provided only in terms of pilot-reported braking actions, instructions should be provided on how to use such data to carry out an assessment of the LDTA in terms of a runway surface condition description. (b) Data developed in accordance with FAA AC 25-32. (c) Data for wet runways corrected to meet the criteria of LDTA, as listed under point (a), in accordance with a methodology provided by the aircraft manufacturer or the type certificate holder (TCH) or an organisation approved under Part 21 and having the relevant privileges in the scope of its organisation approval. (d) Data for contaminated runways developed in compliance with CS 25.1591 or equivalent, which were in use before the implementation of the LDTA, and are corrected to meet the criteria of the LDTA, as listed under point (a), in accordance with a methodology provided by the aircraft manufacturer or the TCH or an organisation approved under Part 21 and having the relevant privileges within the scope of its organisation approval.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: PERFORMANCE INFORMATION FOR THE ASSESSMENT OF THE LDTA — DATA DETERMINED BY EASA When there is no data available for the assessment of the LDTA, performance information for the assessment of the LDTA may be determined by applying the following method: (a) Correction factors may be applied to the certified landing distances on dry runway published in the AFM for turbojet-powered aeroplanes and turbopropeller-powered aeroplanes. (b) For this purpose, the landing distance factors (LDFs) from Table 1 below may be used:

text: Table 1: LDFs

text: Runway condition code 6 5 4 3 2 1 (RWYCC)

text: Runway

text: Note 1 Note 1 Note 1 Note 1 Note 1 Note 1

text: descriptors

text: Turbojet

text: without 1.67 2.6 2.8 3.2 4.0 5.1

text: reverse

text: Turbojet with

text: all reversers 1.67 2.2 2.3 2.5 2.9 3.4

text: operating

text: Turboprop

text: 1.67 2.0 2.2 2.4 2.7 2.9

text: (see Note 2)

text: Note 1: Runway descriptors may be found in the RCAM for each RWYCC or braking action. Note 2: These LDFs apply only to modern turboprops with efficient disking drag. For older turboprops without adequate disking drag, use the LDFs for turbojet without reverse. Note 3: The LDFs can apply to any type of anti-skid system, i.e. fully-modulating, quasimodulating or on-off system. (1) To find the LDTA, multiply the AFM (dry, unfactored) landing distance by the applicable LDFs from Table 1 above for the runway conditions existing at the time of arrival. If the AFM landing distances are presented as factored landing distances, then that data needs to be adjusted to remove the applicable dispatch factors applied to that data before the LDFs from Table 1 above are applied. Note 1: Dispatch factors that are sometimes applied in AFMs to landing distances in order to provide factored distances to operators are not intended to be cumulated with the LDFs for the calculation of the LDTA.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (2) The LDFs given in Table 1 above include a 15 % safety margin and an air distance representative of normal operational practices. They account for variations of temperature up to international standard atmosphere (ISA) + 20 °C, runway slopes between –2 % and +2 %, and an average approach speed increment of 5 up to 20 kt. They may not be conservative for all configurations in case of unfavourable combinations of these parameters.

text: AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.311 Reporting on runway braking action

text: GENERAL Since both the ATC and the aerodrome operator rely on accurate braking action reports, flight crew should use standardised terminology in accordance with ICAO Doc 4444 ‘PANS ATM’. The following Table 1 shows the correlation between the terminology to be used in the AIREP to report the braking action and the RWYCC.

text: Table 1: Association between AIREP and RWYCC

text: AIREP Description RWYCC (braking action)

text: N/A 6 Braking deceleration is normal for the GOOD wheel braking effort applied AND 5 directional control is normal. Braking deceleration OR directional control GOOD TO MEDIUM 4 is between good and medium. Braking deceleration is noticeably reduced MEDIUM for the wheel braking effort applied OR 3 directional control is noticeably reduced. Braking deceleration OR directional control MEDIUM TO POOR 2 is between medium and poor. Braking deceleration is significantly reduced POOR for the wheel braking effort applied OR 1 directional control is significantly reduced. Braking deceleration is minimal to non- LESS THAN POOR existent for the wheel braking effort applied 0 OR directional control is uncertain. An AIREP should be transmitted to the ATC, in accordance with one of the following specifications, as applicable: (a) Good braking action is reported as ‘BRAKING ACTION GOOD’. (b) Good to medium braking action is reported as ‘BRAKING ACTION GOOD TO MEDIUM’. (c) Medium braking action is reported as ‘BRAKING ACTION MEDIUM’. (d) Medium to poor braking action is reported as ‘BRAKING ACTION MEDIUM TO POOR’. (e) Poor braking action is reported as ‘BRAKING ACTION POOR’. (f) Less than poor braking action is reported as ‘BRAKING ACTION LESS THAN POOR’.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: In some cases, the differences between two consecutive levels of the six braking action categories between ‘Good’ and ‘Less than Poor’ may be too subtle for the flight crew to detect. It is therefore acceptable for the flight crew to report on a more coarse scale of ‘Good’, ‘Medium’ and ‘Poor’. Whenever requested by ATC, or if the braking action encountered during the landing roll is not as previously reported by the aerodrome operator in the RCR, pilots should provide a braking action report. This is especially important and safety relevant where the experienced braking action is worse than the braking action associated with any RWYCC code currently in effect for the portion of the runway concerned. When the braking action experienced during landing is better than that reported by the aerodrome operator, it is also relevant to report this information, which may trigger further actions for the aerodrome operator in order to update the RCR. If an aircraft-generated braking action report is available, it should be transmitted, identifying its origin accordingly. If the flight crew have a reason to modify the aircraft-generated braking action report based on their judgement, the commander should be able to amend such report. A braking action AIREP of ‘Less than Poor’ leads to a runway closure until the aerodrome operator can improve the runway condition. An air safety report should be submitted whenever flight safety has been endangered due to low braking action.

text: GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.311 Reporting on runway braking action

text: GENERAL The role of the flight crew in the runway surface condition reporting process does not end once a safe landing has been achieved. While the aerodrome operator is responsible for generating the RCR, flight crew are responsible for providing accurate braking action reports. The flight crew braking action reports provide feedback to the aerodrome operator regarding the accuracy of the RCR resulting from the observed runway surface conditions. ATC passes these braking action reports to the aerodrome operator, which in turn uses them in conjunction with the RCAM to determine if it is necessary to downgrade or upgrade the RWYCC. During busy times, runway inspections and maintenance may be less frequent and need to be sequenced with arrivals. Therefore, aerodrome operators may depend on braking action reports to confirm that the runway surface condition is not deviating significantly from the published RCR.

text: AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.303 & CAT.OP.MPA.311 In-flight check of the landing distance at time of arrival — aeroplanes & Reporting on runway braking action

text: FLIGHT CREW TRAINING Flight crew members should be trained on the use of the RCR, on the use of performance data for the assessment of the LDTA and on reporting braking action using the AIREP format.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.303 & CAT.OP.MPA.311 In-flight check of the landing distance at time of arrival — aeroplanes & Reporting on runway braking action

text: SYLLABUS A training syllabus should include, in addition to the requirements of Subpart FC of Annex III (ORO.FC), at least the following elements: (a) General (1) Contamination (i) Definition (ii) Contaminants which cause increased drag thus affecting acceleration, and contaminants which cause reduced braking action affecting deceleration (iii) Slippery when wet condition (2) Contaminated runway (i) Runway surface condition descriptors (ii) Operational observations with friction devices (iii) Operator´s policy on the usage of: A. reduced take-off thrust B. reports by runway thirds (iv) Stopway (3) Runway condition codes (i) RCAM A. Differences between those published for aerodromes and flight crew B. Format in use C. The use of runway friction measurements D. The use of temperature E. RWYCC F. Downgrade/upgrade criteria G. Difference between a calculation and an assessment (ii) Braking action (iii) Use of aircraft wind limit diagram with contamination (4) Runway condition report (i) Availability (ii) Validity

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (iii) Performance and situational awareness (iv) Decoding (v) Promulgation and reception (5) Aeroplane control in take-off and landing (i) Lateral control A. Windcock effect B. Effect of reversers C. Cornering forces D. Crosswind limitations (including operations when the cleared runway width is less than published (ii) Longitudinal control A. V1 correction in correlation with minimum control speed on ground B. Aquaplaning C. Anti-skid D. Autobrake (6) Take-off distance (i) Acceleration and deceleration (ii) Take-off performance limitations (iii) Take-off distance models (iv) Factors affecting TO distance (v) Why to use the type and depth of contaminant instead of the RWYCC (vi) Safety margins (7) Landing distance (i) Distance at time of arrival model (ii) Factors affecting landing distance (iii) Safety margins (8) Exceptions (i) States that do not comply with ICAO standards for RCR and assessment of the LDTA (b) Flight planning (1) Dispatch/in-flight conditions (2) MEL/CDL items affecting take-off and landing performance (3) Operator´s policy on variable wind and gusts (4) Landing performance at destination and alternates

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (i) Selection of alternates if an aerodrome is not available A. En-route alternates B. Destination alternates (ii) Number of alternates (iii) Runway condition (c) Take-off (1) Runway selection (2) Take-off from a wet or contaminated runway (d) In-flight (1) Landing distance (i) Distance at time of arrival calculations A. Considerations for flight crew B. Operator´s policy (ii) Factors affecting landing distance (iii) Runway selection for landing (iv) Safety margins (2) Use of aircraft systems (i) Brakes/autobrakes (ii) Difference between friction limited braking and different modes of autobrakes (iii) Reversers (e) Landing techniques (1) Flight crew procedures and flying techniques when landing on length limited runway (f) Safety considerations (1) Types of errors possible (2) Mindfulness principles to avoid biases that may lead to errors (g) Documentation and records (h) AIREPs (1) Assessment of braking action (2) Terminology (3) Automated/aircraft-generated braking action reports, if applicable (4) Air safety reports, if flight safety has been endangered due to insufficient braking action

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.200 General

text: WET AND CONTAMINATED RUNWAY DATA If the performance data have been determined on the basis of a measured runway friction coefficient, the operator should use a procedure correlating the measured runway friction coefficient and the effective braking coefficient of friction of the aeroplane type over the required speed range for the existing runway conditions. The determination of take-off performance data for wet and contaminated runways should be based on the reported runway surface condition in terms of contaminant and depth. The determination of landing performance data should be based on information provided in the OM on the reported RWYCC. The RWYCC is determined by the aerodrome operator using the RCAM and associated procedures defined in Annex V (Part-ADR.OPS) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 139/2014

text: . The RWYCC is reported through an RCR in the SNOWTAM format in accordance with ICAO Annex 15.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.215 En-route – one-engine-inoperative (OEI)

text: ROUTE ANALYSIS [...]

text: Figure 1

text: Intersection of the two drift down paths

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.230 Landing — dry runways

text: LANDING MASS

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: CAT.POL.A.230 establishes two considerations in determining the maximum permissible landing mass at the destination and alternate aerodromes: (a) Firstly, the aeroplane mass will be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within 60 %, 70 %, or 780 % (as applicable) of the landing distance available (LDA) on the most favourable (normally the longest) runway in still air. Regardless of the wind conditions, the maximum landing mass for an aerodrome/aeroplane configuration at a particular aerodrome cannot be exceeded. (b) Secondly, consideration should be given to anticipated conditions and circumstances. The expected wind, or ATC and noise abatement procedures, may indicate the use of a different runway. These factors may result in a lower landing mass than that permitted under (a), in which case dispatch should be based on this lesser mass. (c) The expected wind referred to in (b) is the wind expected to exist at the time of arrival.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.230(a) Landing — dry runways

text: ALTERNATE AERODROMES The alternate aerodromes for which the landing mass is required to be determined in accordance with CAT.POL.A.230 are: (a) destination alternate aerodromes; (b) fuel ERA aerodromes; and (c) re-dispatch or re-clearance aerodromes.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.230(d)(2) Landing — dry runways

text: AFM LANDING PERFORMANCE CORRECTIONS Landing performance data is provided in the AFM at least for the certified range of pressure altitudes. AFM data may include other influence parameters such as, but not limited to, runway slope and temperature. The effect of speed increments over threshold should also be accounted for when these increments are required by the applicable AFM procedures, such as autoland or steep approach.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.235(a) and (b) Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: DISPATCH CONSIDERATIONS FOR MARGINAL CASES The LDTA required by CAT.OP.MPA.303 may, in some cases, and in particular on wet or contaminated runways, exceed the landing distance considered at the time of dispatch. The requirements for dispatch remain unchanged, however, when the conditions at the time of arrival are expected to be marginal, it is a good practice to carry out at the time of dispatch a preliminary calculation of the LDTA.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.235(a)(1) Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: AFM LANDING DISTANCES FOR WET RUNWAYS

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: Specific landing distances provided in the AFM for dispatch on wet runways, unless otherwise indicated, include a safety factor, which renders not necessary the application of the 15 % safety factor used in CAT.POL.A.235(a)(2). This implies that the AFM distance may be presented as factored distance. When the AFM distance is not factored, a safety factor of 15 % should be applied. These distances may be longer or shorter than those resulting from CAT.POL.A.235(a)(2), but when provided, they are intended as a replacement of CAT.POL.A.235(a)(2) and mandatory for use at the time of dispatch.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.235(a)(3) Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: RUNWAYS WITH FRICTION IMPROVING CHARACTERISTICS (a) Materials or construction techniques meant to improve the friction characteristics of a runway may be grooved runways, runways treated with porous friction course (PFC) or other materials or techniques for which the AFM provides specific performance data. (b) Before taking the AFM performance credit for such runways, the operator should verify that the runways intended to be operated on are maintained to the extent necessary to ensure the expected improved friction characteristics.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.230 & CAT.POL.A.235 Landing — dry runways & Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: FACTORING OF AUTOMATIC LANDING DISTANCE PERFORMANCE DATA In those cases where the landing requires the use of an automatic landing system, and the distance published in the AFM includes safety margins equivalent to those contained in CAT.POL.A.230 (a)(1), CAT.POL.A.230(a)(2) and CAT.POL.A.235, the landing mass of the aeroplane should be the lesser of: (a) the landing mass determined in accordance with CAT.POL.A.230 (a)(1), CAT.POL.A.230(a)(2) or CAT.POL.A.235, as appropriate; or (b) the landing mass determined for the automatic landing distance for the appropriate surface condition, as given in the AFM or equivalent document. Increments due to system features such as beam location or elevations, or procedures such as use of overspeed, should also be included.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.230 & CAT.POL.A.235 Landing — dry runways & Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: WORKFLOW OF THE LANDING DISTANCE ASSESSMENT AT THE TIME OF DISPATCH — GENERAL

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R WORKFLOW OF THE LANDING DISTANCE ASSESSMENT AT THE TIME OF DISPATCH — RUNWAY SUITABILITY CHECK

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R WORKFLOW OF THE LANDING DISTANCE ASSESSMENT AT THE TIME OF DISPATCH — DRY RUNWAYS Page 42 of 82

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R WORKFLOW OF THE LANDING DISTANCE ASSESSMENT AT THE TIME OF DISPATCH — WET RUNWAYS Page 43 of 82

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: WORKFLOW OF THE LANDING DISTANCE ASSESSMENT AT THE TIME OF DISPATCH — CONTAMINATED RUNWAYS

text: GM2 CAT.POL.A.230 & CAT.POL.A.235 Landing — dry runways & Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: LANDING DISTANCES AND CORRECTIVE FACTORS The AFM provides performance data for landing distance under conditions defined in the applicable certification standards. This distance, commonly referred to as the actual landing distance (ALD), is the distance from the position on the runway of the screen height to the point where the aeroplane comes to a full stop on a dry runway. The determination of the ALD is based on the assumption that the landing is performed in accordance with the conditions and the procedures set out in the AFM on the basis of the applicable certification standards. As a matter of fact, any particular landing may be different from the landing technique that is assumed in the AFM for certification purposes. The aircraft may approach the runway faster and/or higher than assumed; the aircraft may touch down further along the runway than the optimum point; the actual winds and other weather factors may be different from those assumed in the calculation of the ALD; and maximum braking

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: may not be always achievable. For this reason, the LDA is required by CAT.POL.A.230 and CAT.POL.A.235 to be longer than the ALD. The margins by which the LDA shall exceed the ALD on dry runways, in accordance with CAT.POL.A.230, are shown in the following Table 1.

text: Table 1: Corrective factors for dry runways

text: Aeroplane category Required margin (dry runway) Resulting factor (dry runway) Turbojet-powered aeroplanes ALD < 60 % of the LDA LDA = at least 1.67 x ALD Turbopropeller-powered ALD < 70 % of the LDA LDA = at least 1.43 x ALD aeroplanes Aeroplanes approved under ALD < 80 % of the LDA LDA = at least 1.25 x ALD CAT.POL.A.255

text: If the runway is wet and the AFM does not provide specific performance data for dispatch on wet runways, a further increase of 15 % of the landing distance on dry runways has to be applied, in accordance with CAT.POL.A.235, as shown in the following Table 2.

text: Table 2: Corrective factors for wet runways

text: Aeroplane category Resulting factor (dry runway) Turbojet-powered aeroplanes LDA = at least 1.15 x 1.67 x ALD = 1.92 x ALD Turbopropeller-powered LDA = at least 1.15 x 1.43 x ALD = 1.64 x ALD aeroplanes Aeroplanes approved under LDA = at least 1.15 x 1.25 X ALD = 1.44 x ALD CAT.POL.A.255

text: However, for aeroplanes that are approved under CAT.POL.A.255, when landing on wet runways, CAT.POL.A.255 further requires the flight crew to apply the longer of the landing distance resulting from the above table and the landing distance resulting from the application of CAT.OP.MPA.303(a) or (b) as applicable. If performance information for the assessment of LDTA is not available as per CAT.OP.MPA.303(b)(2), the required landing distance on wet runways should be at least: 1.15 x 1.67 x ALD for turbojet-powered aircraft and 1.15 x 1.43 x ALD for turbopropeller-powered aircraft.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.245(a) Approval of steep approach operations

text: SCREEN HEIGHT

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: For the purpose of steep approach operations, the screen height is the reference height above the runway surface, typically above the runway threshold, from which the landing distance is measured. The screen height is set at 50 ft for normal operations and at another value between 60 ft and 35 ft for steep approach operations.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.255(a)(2) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: AEROPLANE ELIGIBILITY The factors required by CAT.POL.A.230(a)(1) or (a)(2), as applicable, provide an operational safety margin to take into account landing distance operational variability in normal operations compared to the conditions and procedures set out to determine the actual landing distances during the certification of the aeroplane. The reduction of this margin, allowed when operating with reduced required landing distance, is based on a set of mitigating conditions required by CAT.POL.A.255. However, if the factors required by CAT.POL.A.230(a)(1) or (a)(2), as applicable, have been used during the certification of the aeroplane to demonstrate compliance with certification standards such as, but not limited to, CS 25.1309 or equivalent, the aeroplane is not eligible for a reduction of the margin provided by those factors. Furthermore, certification methods offer different options for the determination of the air distance portion of the landing distance in terms of assumption that can be made for parameters such as, but not limited to, glide path angle and sink rate at touchdown. The assumptions made during the certification of the aeroplane may increase the landing distance operational variability in normal operations. The effect of parameters such as temperature or runway slope, when these were not considered during certification, may as well increase the landing distances achievable in normal operations. Overall, the set of assumptions made during the certification of the aeroplane may not be always compatible with the operational safety margin reduction allowed in reduced required landing distance operations under CAT.POL.A.255. Whether the factors required by CAT.POL.A.230(a)(1) or (a)(2), as applicable, have been used to demonstrate compliance with certification standards, or the set of assumptions made to determine actual landing distances during the certification of the aeroplane are compatible with reduced landing distance operations, may be only declared by the aeroplane manufacturer or by the TC/STC holder.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.255(a)(3) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: NON-SCHEDULED ON-DEMAND COMMERCIAL AIR TRANSPORT (CAT) OPERATIONS For the purpose of reduced required landing distance operations, non-scheduled on-demand CAT operations are those CAT operations conducted upon request of the customer. Non-scheduled on-demand CAT operations eligible for reduced required landing distance operations do not include holiday charters, i.e. charter flights that are part of a holiday travel package.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(1) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: EQUIVALENT LEVEL OF SAFETY

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: A level of safety equivalent to that intended by CAT.POL.A.230(a)(1) or CAT.POL.A.230(a)(2), as applicable, may be achieved when conducting reduced required landing distance operations if mitigating measures are established and implemented. Such measures should address flight crew, aircraft characteristics and performance, aerodromes and operations. It is, however, essential that all conditions established are adhered to as it is the combination of said conditions that achieves the intended level of safety. The operator should in fact also consider the interrelation of the various mitigating measures. The mitigating measures may be determined by the operator by using a risk assessment or by fulfilling all the conditions established under CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2). An operator willing to establish a set of conditions different from those under CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2) needs to demonstrate to the competent authority the equivalent level of safety through a risk assessment. The risk assessment required by CAT.POL.A.255(b)(1) should include at least the following elements: (a) flight crew qualification in terms of training, checking and recency; (b) flight crew composition; (c) runway surface conditions; (d) dispatch criteria; (e) weather conditions and limitations, including crosswind; (f) aerodrome characteristics, including available approach guidance; (g) aeroplane characteristics and limitations; (h) aeroplane equipment and systems affecting landing performance; (i) aeroplane performance data; (j) operating procedures and operating minima; and (k) analysis of operators’s performance and occurrence reports related to unstable approaches and long landings. The competent authority may require other mitigating measures in addition to those proposed by the operator.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(iv) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: GENERAL (a) The operator should ensure that flight crew training programmes for reduced required landing distance operations include ground training, flight simulation training device (FSTD), and/or flight training. (b) Flight crew with no reduced required landing distance operations experience should have completed the full training programme of (a) above. (c) Flight crew with previous reduced required landing distance operations experience of a similar type of operation with another EU operator, may undertake the following:

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (1) an abbreviated ground training course if operating an aircraft of a type or class different from that of the aircraft on which the previous reduced required landing distance operations experience was gained; (2) an abbreviated ground, FSTD and/or flight training course if operating the same type or class and variant of the same aircraft type or class on which the previous reduced required landing distance operations experience was gained; this course should include at least the provisions of the conversion training contained in this AMC; the operator may reduce the number of approaches/landings required by the conversion training if the type/class or the variant of the aircraft type or class has the same or similar operating procedures, handling characteristics and performance characteristics as the previously operated aircraft type or class. (d) Flight crew with reduced required landing distance operations experience with the operator may undertake an abbreviated ground, FSTD and/or flight training course according to the following conditions: (1) when changing aircraft type or class, the abbreviated course should include at least the content of the conversion training; (2) when changing to a different variant of aircraft within the same type or class rating that has the same or similar operating procedures, handling characteristics and performance characteristics, as the previously operated aircraft type or class, a difference course or familiarisation appropriate to the change of variant should fulfil the abbreviated course’s purposes; and (3) when changing to a different variant of aircraft within the same type or class rating that has significantly different operating procedures, handling characteristics and performance characteristics, the abbreviated course should include the content of the conversion training. GROUND TRAINING (a) The initial ground training course for reduced required landing distance operations should include at least the following: (1) operational procedures and limitations, including flight preparation and planning; (2) characteristics of the runway visual aids and runway markings; (3) aircraft performance related to reduced required landing distance operations, including: (i) aircraft-specific decelerating devices and equipment; (ii) items that increase the aircraft landing distance, e.g. excess speed at touchdown, threshold crossing height, delayed brake application, delayed spoiler/speed brake or thrust reverser application; and (iii) runway surface conditions; (4) in-flight assessment of landing performance, including maximum landing masses and runway conditions; (5) stabilised approach criteria; (6) correct vertical flight path after the DA/MDA;

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (7) correct flare, touchdown and braking techniques; (8) touchdown within the appropriate touchdown zone; (9) recognition of failure of aircraft equipment affecting aircraft performance, and action to be taken in that event; (10) flight crew task allocation and pilot monitoring duties, including monitoring of the activation of deceleration devices; (11) go-around/balked-landing criteria and decision-making; (12) selection of precision approaches versus non-precision approaches if both are available; and (13) qualification requirements for pilots to obtain and retain reduced required landing distance operations, including aerodrome landing analysis programme (ALAP) procedures. FSTD TRAINING AND/OR FLIGHT TRAINING (a) FSTD and/or flight training should be undertaken by all flight crew on flight duty at the controls during landing when performing reduced required landing distance operations. (b) FSTD and/or flight training for reduced required landing distance operations should include checks of equipment functionality, both on the ground and in flight. (c) Initial reduced required landing distance operations training should consist of a minimum of two approaches and landings to include at least the following exercises which may be combined: (1) an approach and landing at the maximum landing mass; (2) an approach and landing without the use of visual approach; (3) a landing on a wet runway; (4) a landing with crosswind; (5) a malfunction of a stopping device on landing; and (6) a go-around/balked landing. (d) Special emphasis should be given to the following items: (1) in-flight assessment of landing performance; (2) stabilised approach, recognition of an unstable approach and, consequentially, a go-around; (3) flight crew task allocation and pilot monitoring duties, including monitoring of the activation of deceleration devices; (4) timely and correct activation of deceleration devices; (5) correct flare technique; and (6) landing within the appropriate touchdown zone. CONVERSION TRAINING Flight crew members should complete the following reduced required landing distance operations training if converting to a new type or class or variant of aircraft in which reduced required landing distance operations will be conducted.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (a) Ground training, taking into account the flight crew member’s reduced required landing distance operations experience. (b) FSTD training and/or flight training. RECURRENT TRAINING AND CHECKING (a) The operator should ensure that in conjunction with the normal recurrent training and operator’s proficiency checks, the pilot’s knowledge and ability to perform the tasks associated with reduced required landing distance operations are adequate. (b) The items of the ground training should cover a 3-year period. (c) An annual reduced required landing distance operations training should consist of a minimum of two approaches and landings so that it includes at least the following exercises which may be combined: (1) an approach and landing at the maximum landing mass; (2) an approach and landing without the use of visual approach; (3) a landing on a wet runway; (4) a malfunction of a stopping device on landing; and (5) a go-around/balked landing. (6) Operations in crosswind conditions FLIGHT CREW QUALIFICATION AND EXPERIENCE (a) Flight crew qualification and experience are specific to the operator and type of aircraft operated. (b) The operator should ensure that each flight crew member successfully completes the specified FSTD and/or flight training before conducting reduced required landing distance operations. (c) The operator should ensure that no inexperienced flight crew members, as defined in AMC1.ORO.FC.200(a), perform an approach and landing with reduced required landing distance operations.

text: AMC2 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(iv) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: MONITORING (a) Reduced required landing distance operations should be continuously monitored by the operator to detect any undesirable trends before they become hazardous. (b) A flight data monitoring (FDM) programme, as required by ORO.AOC.130, is an acceptable method to monitor operational risks related to reduced required landing distance operations. (c) When an FDM programme is in use, it should include FDM events or FDM measurements relevant for monitoring the risk of runway excursions at landing. (d) When FDM is neither required by ORO.AOC.130, nor implemented on a voluntary basis, flight crew reports should be used. Specific guidance for reporting events and exceedances during reduced required landing distance operations should be provided to the flight crew.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(iv) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: GENERAL Flight crew training should be conducted preferably at aerodromes representative of the intended operations. An FSTD generic aerodrome with the same characteristics of an aerodrome requiring the reduced required landing distance is also acceptable for the initial and recurrent training.

text: GM2 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(iv) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: MONITORING (a) Although ORO.AOC.130 requires an FDM programme only for aeroplanes with a maximum certified take-off mass (MCTOM) of more than 27 000 kg, FDM may be used voluntarily on aeroplanes having a lower MCTOM. It is recommended for all operators conducting reduced required landing distance operations. (b) Guidance on the definition of FDM events and FDM measurements relevant for monitoring the risk of runway excursion at landing may be found in the publications of the European Operators Flight Data Monitoring (EOFDM) forum.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(v) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: AERODROME LANDING ANALYSIS PROGRAMME (ALAP) The intent of an ALAP is to ensure that the aerodrome critical data related to landing performance in reduced required landing distance operations is known and taken into account in order to avoid any further increase of the landing distance. Two important aerodrome-related variables largely contribute to increasing the landing distance: landing (ground) speed and deceleration capability. Related factors to consider should include at least the following elements: (a) Topography Terrain around the aerodrome should be considered. High, fast-rising terrain may require special approach or decision points, missed approach or balked landing procedures and may affect landing performance. Aerodromes located on top of hilly terrain or downwind of mountainous terrain may occasionally experience conditions of wind shear and gusts. Such conditions are particularly relevant during the landing manoeuvre, particularly during the flare, and may increase landing distance. (b) Runway conditions Runway characteristics, such as unknown slope and surface composition, can cause the actual landing distance to be longer than the calculated landing distance. The braking action always impacts the landing distance required as it deteriorates. To this regard, consideration should be given to, and information obtained on, the maintenance status of the runway, as a wet runway surface may be significantly degraded due to poor aerodrome maintenance. (c) Aerodrome or area weather

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: Some aerodromes may not have current weather reports and forecast available for flight planning. Others may have automated observations for operational use. Others may depend on the weather forecast of a nearby aerodrome. Area forecasts are also valuable in evaluating weather conditions for a particular operation. Comparing forecasted conditions to current conditions provides insight on upcoming changes as weather systems move and forecasts are updated. Longer flight segments may lean more heavily on the forecast for the estimated time of arrival (ETA), as current conditions may change significantly as weather systems move. The most important factors that should be considered are contained in AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.300(a), AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.311, GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.311, GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.303 and GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.303. (d) Adverse weather Adverse weather conditions include, but are not restricted to, thunderstorms, showers, downbursts, squall lines, tornadoes, moderate or severe turbulence on approach, heavy precipitation, wind shear and icing conditions. In general, all weather phenomena having the potential to increase the landing distance should be carefully assessed. Among these, tailwind is particularly relevant. Wind variations should be carefully monitored as they may lead to variations in the reported and/or actual wind at the touchdown zone. Due consideration should be given also to the crosswind perpendicular to the landing runway as a slight variation in the direction of the crosswind may result in a considerable tailwind component. (e) Runway safety margins Displaced thresholds, aerodrome construction, and temporary obstacles (such as cranes and drawbridges) may impact the runway length available for landing. Notices to airmen (NOTAMs) must be consulted during the flight preparation. Another safety margin is the size and adequacy of the runway strip and the runway end safety area (RESA). A well-designed and well-maintained runway strip and RESA decrease the risk of damaging the aircraft in case of a runway excursion. ICAO Annex 14 provides the Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPs) to this regard.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(v) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: AERODROME LANDING ANALYSIS PROGRAMME (ALAP) — AERODROME FACILITIES The ALAP may also consider the services that are available at the aerodrome. Services such as communications, maintenance, and fuelling, availability of adequate rescue and firefighting services (RFFS) and medical services may have an impact on operations to and from that aerodrome, though not directly related to the landing distance. It is also worth considering whether the aerodrome is only meeting ICAO and national standards or also ICAO recommendations, as well as when the aerodrome bearing ratios are below the design and maintenance criteria indicated in ICAO Doc 9157 ‘Aerodrome Design Manual’.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(vi) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: EQUIPMENT AFFECTING LANDING PERFORMANCE Equipment affecting landing performance typically includes flaps, slats, spoilers, brakes, anti-skid, autobrakes, reversers, etc. The operator should establish procedures to identify, based on the aircraft

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: characteristics, those systems and the equipment that are performance relevant, and to ensure that they are verified to be operative before commencing the flight. Appropriate entries should be included in the minimum equipment list (MEL) to prohibit dispatch with such equipment inoperative when conducting reduced required landing distance operations.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(vi) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: EQUIPMENT AFFECTING LANDING PERFORMANCE Should any item of equipment affecting landing performance become inoperative during flight, the failure will be dealt with in accordance with the abnormal/emergency procedures established in the OM and, based on the prevailing conditions for the remainder of the flight, the commander will decide upon the discontinuation of the planned operation of reduced required landing distance.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(vii) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: RECENCY Flight crew conducting reduced landing distance operations should perform at least two landings with reduced landing distance, either in actual operations or in an FSTD, performed within the validity period of the operator proficiency check (OPC).

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.255(b)(2)(ix) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: ADDITIONAL AERODROME CONDITIONS (a) Operators should establish procedures to ensure that: (1) the aerodrome information is obtained from an authoritative source, or when this is not available, from a source that has been verified by the operator to meet quality standards that are adequate for the intended use; (2) any change reducing landing distances that has been declared by the aerodrome operator has been taken into account; and (3) no steep approaches, screen heights lower than 35 ft or higher than 60 ft, operations outside the stabilised approach criteria, or low-visibility operations are required at the aerodrome when reduced required landing distance operations are conducted. (b) Additional aerodrome conditions related to aeroplane type characteristics, orographic characteristics in the approach area, available approach aids and missed approach/balked landing considerations, as well as operating limitations, should also be taken into account. (c) When assessing the aerodrome characteristics and the level of risk of the aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway, the operator should consider the nature and location of any hazard beyond the runway end, including the topography and obstruction environment beyond the runway strip, the length of the RESA and the effectiveness of any other mitigation measures that may be in place to reduce the likelihood and the consequences of a runway overrun.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.305 Take-off

text: RUNWAY SURFACE CONDITION [...]

text: Table 1

text: Runway surface condition — Variables

text: Surface type Condition Factor

text: Grass (on firm Dry 1.2 soil) up to Wet 1.3 20 cm long Paved Wet 1.0 [...] (e) The determination of take-off performance data for wet and contaminated runways, when such data is available, should be based on the reported runway surface condition in terms of contaminant and depth.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.330 Landing — dry runways

text: LANDING DISTANCE CORRECTION FACTORS (a) Unless otherwise specified in the AFM, or other performance or operating manuals from the manufacturers, the variable affecting the landing performance and the associated factor that should be applied to the AFM data are shown in the table below. It should be applied in addition to the operational factors as prescribed in CAT.POL.A.330 (a) and CAT.POL.A.330(b). [...]

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.330 Landing — dry runways

text: LANDING MASS CAT.POL.A.330 establishes two considerations in determining the maximum permissible landing mass at the destination and alternate aerodromes. (a) Firstly, the aeroplane mass will be such that on arrival the aeroplane can be landed within 70 % or 80 %, as applicable, of the LDA on the most favourable (normally the longest) runway in still air. Regardless of the wind conditions, the maximum landing mass for an aerodrome/aeroplane configuration at a particular aerodrome cannot be exceeded. [...]

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.330(a) Landing — dry runways

text: ALTERNATE AERODROMES

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: The alternate aerodromes for which the landing mass is required to be determined in accordance with CAT.POL.A.330 are: (a) destination alternate aerodromes; (b) fuel ERA aerodromes; and (c) re-dispatch or re-clearance aerodromes.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.335 Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: WET AND CONTAMINATED RUNWAY DATA The determination of landing performance data should be based on information provided in the OM on the reported RWYCC. The RWYCC is determined by the aerodrome operator using the RCAM and associated procedures defined in Annex V (Part-ADR.OPS) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 139/2014

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.335 Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: DISPATCH CONSIDERATIONS FOR MARGINAL CASES The LDTA required by CAT.OP.MPA.303 may, in some cases, and in particular on wet or contaminated runways, exceeds the landing distance considered at the time of dispatch. The requirements for dispatch remain unchanged; however, when the conditions at the time of arrival are expected to be marginal, it is a good practice to carry out at the time of dispatch a preliminary calculation of the LDTA.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.335(a)(1) Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: AFM LANDING DISTANCES FOR WET RUNWAYS Specific landing distances provided in the AFM for dispatch on wet runways, unless otherwise indicated, include a safety factor, which renders the application of the 15 % safety factor used in CAT.POL.A.335(a)(2) not necessary. This implies that the AFM distance may be presented as factored distance. When the AFM distance is not factored, a safety factor of 15 % should be applied. These distances may be longer or shorter than those resulting from CAT.POL.A.335(a)(2), but when provided, they are intended as a replacement of CAT.POL.A.335(a)(2) and it is mandatory to be used at the time of dispatch.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.335(a)(3) Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: RUNWAYS WITH FRICTION IMPROVING CHARACTERISTICS (a) Materials or construction techniques meant to improve the friction characteristics of a runway may be grooved runways, runways treated with PFC or other materials or techniques for which the AFM provides specific performance data. (b) Before taking the AFM performance credit for such runways, the operator should verify that the runways intended to be operated on are maintained to the extent necessary to ensure the expected improved friction characteristics.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.330 & CAT.POL.A.335 Landing — dry runways & Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: LANDING DISTANCES AND CORRECTIVE FACTORS The AFM provides performance data for the landing distance under conditions defined in the applicable certification standards. This distance, commonly referred to as the ALD, is the distance from the position on the runway of the screen height to the point where the aeroplane comes to a full stop on a dry runway. The determination of the ALD is based on the assumption that the landing is performed in accordance with the conditions and the procedures set out in the AFM on the basis of the applicable certification standards. As a matter of fact, any particular landing may be different from the landing technique that is assumed in the AFM for certification purposes. The aircraft may approach the runway faster and/or higher than assumed; the aircraft may touch down further along the runway than the optimum point; the actual winds and other weather factors may be different from those assumed in the calculation of the ALD; and maximum braking may not be always achievable. For this reason, the LDA is required by CAT.POL.A.330 and CAT.POL.A.335 to be longer than the ALD. The margins by which the LDA shall exceed the ALD on dry runways, in accordance with CAT.POL.A.330, are shown in the following Table 1.

text: Aeroplane category Required Margin (dry runway) Resulting factor (dry runway) All aeroplanes ALD < 70 % of the LDA LDA = at least 1.43 x ALD Aeroplanes approved under ALD < 80 % of the LDA LDA = at least 1.25 x ALD CAT.POL.A.355

text: If the runway is wet and the AFM does not provide specific performance data for dispatch on wet runways, a further increase of 15 % of the landing distance on dry runways has to be applied, in accordance with CAT.POL.A.335, as shown in the following Table 2:

text: Aeroplane category Resulting factor (dry runway) All aeroplanes LDA = at least 1.15 x 1.43 x ALD = 1.64 x ALD Aeroplanes approved under LDA = at least 1.15 x 1.25 X ALD = 1.44 x ALD CAT.POL.A.355

text: However, for aeroplanes approved under CAT.POL.A.355, when landing on wet runways, CAT.POL.A.355 further requires the flight crew to apply the longer of the landing distance resulting from the above table and the landing distance resulting from the application of CAT.OP.MPA.303(b). ). If performance information for

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: the assessment of LDTA is not available as per CAT.OP.MPA.303(b)(2), the required landing distance on wet runways should be at least: 1.15 x 1.67 x ALD for turbojet-powered aircraft and 1.15 x 1.43 x ALD for turbopropeller-powered aircraft.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.345(a) Approval of steep approach operations

text: SCREEN HEIGHT For the purpose of steep approach operations, the screen height is the reference height above the runway surface, typically above the runway threshold, from which the landing distance is measured. The screen height is set at 50 ft for normal operations and at another value between 60 ft and 35 ft for steep approach operations.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.355(b) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: EQUIVALENT LEVEL OF SAFETY A level of safety equivalent to that intended by CAT.POL.A.330(a) may be achieved when conducting reduced required landing distance operations if mitigating measures are established and implemented. Such measures should address flight crew, aircraft characteristics and performance, aerodromes and operations. It is, however, essential that all conditions established are adhered to as it is the combination of said conditions that achieves the intended level of safety. The operator should in fact also consider the interrelation of the various mitigating measures. The competent authority may require other mitigating measures in addition to those proposed by the operator.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.355(b)(4) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: CONTROL OF THE TOUCHDOWN AREA The control of the touchdown area may be ensured by using external references visible from the flight crew compartment. The end of the designated touchdown area should be clearly identified with a ground reference point beyond which a go-around is required. Adequate go-around and balked landing instructions should be established in the OM. A written and/or pictorial description of the procedure should be provided for crew use.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.355(b)(5) and (b)(6) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: TYPE EXPERIENCE The operator should specify in the OM the minimum pilot’s experience on the aircraft type or class used to conduct such operations. TRAINING PROGRAMME (a) Initial training

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (1) The aerodrome training programme shall include ground and flight training with a suitably qualified instructor. (2) Flight training should be carried out on the runway of the intended operations, and should include a suitable number of: (i) approaches and landings; and (ii) missed approach/balked landings. (3) When performing approaches and landings, particular emphasis should be placed on: (i) stabilised approach criteria; (ii) accuracy of flare and touchdown; (iii) positive identification of the ground reference point controlling the touchdown area; and (iv) correct use of deceleration devices. (4) These exercises should be conducted in accordance with the specific control procedure of the touchdown area established by the operator and should enable the flight crew to identify the external visual references and the designated touchdown area. (b) Recurrent training The operator should ensure that in conjunction with the recurrent training and checking programme required by Subpart FC of Annex III (Part-ORO) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 965/2012

text: , the pilot’s knowledge and ability to perform the tasks associated with this particular operation, for which the pilot is authorised by the operator, are verified. RECENCY The operator should define in the OM appropriate recent-experience requirements to ensure that the pilot’s ability to perform an approach to and landing on the intended runway is maintained.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.355(b)(7) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: Runway characteristics, such as unknown slope and surface composition, can cause the actual landing distance to be longer than the calculated landing distance. Braking action always impacts the landing distance required as it deteriorates. To this regard, consideration should be given to, and information obtained on, the maintenance status of the runway, as a wet runway surface may be significantly degraded due to poor aerodrome maintenance. (c) Aerodrome or area weather Some aerodromes may not have current weather reports and forecast available for flight planning. Others may have automated observations for operational use. Others may depend on the weather forecast of a nearby aerodrome. Area forecasts are also valuable in evaluating weather conditions for a particular operation. Comparing forecasted conditions to current conditions provides insight on upcoming changes as weather systems move and forecasts are updated. Longer flight segments may lean more heavily on the forecast for the ETA, as current conditions may change significantly as weather systems move. The most important factors that should be considered are contained in AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.300(a), AMC1 CAT.OP.MPA.311, GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.311, GM1 CAT.OP.MPA.303 and GM2 CAT.OP.MPA.303. (d) Adverse weather Adverse weather conditions include, but are not restricted to, thunderstorms, showers, downbursts, squall lines, tornadoes, moderate or severe turbulence on approach, heavy precipitation, wind shear and icing conditions. In general, all weather phenomena having the potential to increase the landing distance should be carefully assessed. Among these, tailwind is particularly relevant. Wind variations should be carefully monitored as they may lead to variations in the reported and/or actual wind at the touchdown zone. Due consideration should be given also to the crosswind perpendicular to the landing runway as a slight variation in the direction of the crosswind may result in a considerable tailwind component. (e) Runway safety margins Displaced thresholds, aerodrome construction, and temporary obstacles (such as cranes and drawbridges) may impact the runway length available for landing. NOTAMs must be consulted during the flight preparation. Another safety margin is the size and adequacy of the runway strip and the RESA. A well-designed and well-maintained runway strip and RESA decrease the risk of damaging the aircraft in case of a runway excursion. ICAO Annex 14 provides the SARPS to this regard.

text: AERODROME LANDING ANALYSIS PROGRAMME (ALAP) — AERODROME FACILITIES The ALAP may also consider the services that are available at the aerodrome. Services such as communications, maintenance, and fuelling, availability of adequate RFFS and medical services may have an impact on operations to and from that aerodrome, though not directly related to the landing distance. It is also worth considering whether the aerodrome is only meeting ICAO and national standards or also ICAO recommendations, as well as when the aerodrome bearing ratios are below the design and maintenance criteria indicated in ICAO Doc 9157 ‘Aerodrome Design Manual’.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.355(b)(8)(i) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: EQUIPMENT AFFECTING LANDING PERFORMANCE Equipment affecting landing performance typically includes flaps, slats, spoilers, brakes, anti-skid, autobrakes, reversers, etc. The operator should establish procedures to identify, based on the aircraft characteristics, those systems and the equipment that are performance relevant, and to ensure that they are verified to be operative before commencing the flight. Appropriate entries should be included in the MEL to prohibit dispatch with such equipment inoperative when conducting reduced required landing distance operations.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.355(b)(8)(i) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.355(b)(8)(ii) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: CORRECT USE OF DECELERATION DEVICES Flight crew should use full reverse when landing, irrespective of any noise-related restriction on its use, unless this affects the controllability of the aircraft. The use of all stopping devices, including reverse thrust, should commence immediately after touchdown without any delay.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.355(b)(9) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: SPECIFIC MAINTENANCE INSTRUCTIONS Additional maintenance instructions, such as, but not limited to, more frequent checks for the aircraft’s deceleration devices, especially for the reverse system, should be established by the operator in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations, and be included in the operator’s maintenance programme in accordance with Annex I (Part-M) to

text: Regulation (EU) No 1321/2014

text: . SPECIFIC OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES The operator should establish procedures for the flight crew to check before take-off the correct deployment of the deceleration devices, such as the reverse system.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.355(b)(11) Approval of reduced required landing distance operations

text: ADDITIONAL AERODROME CONDITIONS

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (a) Operators should establish procedures to ensure that: (1) the aerodrome information is obtained from an authoritative source, or when this is not available, from a source that has been verified by the operator to meet quality standards that are adequate for the intended use; and (2) any change reducing landing distances that has been declared by the aerodrome operator has been taken into account. (b) Additional aerodrome conditions related to aeroplane type characteristics, orographic characteristics in the approach area, available approach aids and missed approach/balked landing considerations, as well as operating limitations, should also be taken into account. (c) When assessing the aerodrome characteristics and the level of risk of the aeroplane undershooting or overrunning the runway, the operator should consider the nature and location of any hazard beyond the runway end, including the topography and obstruction environment beyond the runway strip, the length of the RESA and the effectiveness of any other mitigation measures that may be in place to reduce the likelihood and the consequences of a runway overrun.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.400 Take-off

text: LOSS OF RUNWAY LENGTH DUE TO ALIGNMENT [...] (b) Alignment distance calculation [...] RN = A + WN = WB/cos(90°-α) + WN [...]

text: AMC3 CAT.POL.A.400 Take-off

text: RUNWAY SURFACE CONDITION The determination of take-off performance data for wet and contaminated runways, when such data is available, should be based on the reported runway surface condition in terms of contaminant and depth.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.430(a) Landing — dry runways

text: ALTERNATE AERODROMES The alternate aerodromes for which the landing mass is required to be determined in accordance with CAT.POL.A.430 are: (a) destination alternate aerodromes;

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (b) fuel ERA aerodromes; and (c) re-dispatch or re-clearance aerodromes.

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.A.435 Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: Regulation (EU) No 139/2014

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.435 Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.435(a)(1) Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: AFM LANDING DISTANCES FOR WET RUNWAYS Specific landing distances provided in the AFM for dispatch on wet runways, unless otherwise indicated, include a safety factor, which renders the application of the 15% safety factor used in CAT.POL.A.435(a)(2) not necessary. This implies that the AFM distance may be presented as factored distance. When the AFM distance is not factored, a safety factor of 15 % should be applied. These distances may be longer or shorter than those resulting from CAT.POL.A.435(a)(2), but when provided they are intended as a replacement of CAT.POL.A.435(a)(2) and it is mandatory to be used at the time of dispatch.

text: GM1 CAT.POL.A.430 & CAT.POL.A.435 Landing — dry runways & Landing — wet and contaminated runways

text: LANDING DISTANCES AND CORRECTIVE FACTORS The AFM provides performance data for landing distance under conditions defined in the applicable certification standards. This distance, commonly referred to as the ALD, is the distance from the position on the runway of the screen height to the point where the aeroplane comes to a full stop on a dry runway. The determination of the ALD is based on the assumption that the landing is performed in accordance with the conditions and the procedures set out in the AFM on the basis of the applicable certification standards. As a matter of fact, any particular landing may be different from the landing technique that is assumed in the AFM for certification purposes. The aircraft may approach the runway faster and/or higher than assumed; the aircraft may touch down further along the runway than the optimum point; the actual winds and other weather factors may be different from those assumed in the calculation of the ALD; and maximum braking may not be always achievable. For this reason, the LDA is required by CAT.POL.A.430 and CAT.POL.A.435 to be longer than the ALD.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R The margins by which the LDA shall exceed the ALD on dry runways, in accordance with CAT.POL.A.430, are shown in the following Table 1.

text: Table 1: — Corrective factors for dry runways

text: Aeroplane category Required Margin (dry runway) Resulting factor (dry runway) All aeroplanes ALD < 70 % of the LDA LDA = at least 1.43 x ALD

text: If the runway is wet and the AFM does not provide specific performance data for dispatch on wet runways, a further increase of 15 % of the landing distance on dry runways has to be applied, in accordance with CAT.POL.A.435, as shown in the following Table 2.

text: Aeroplane category Resulting factor (dry runway) All aeroplanes LDA = at least 1.15 x 1.43 x ALD = 1.64 x ALD

text: AMC1 CAT.POL.MAB.100(e) Mass and balance, loading

text: MASS VALUES FOR PASSENGERS AND BAGGAGE [...]

text: Figure 1

text: The European region

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (fe) Other standard masses may be used provided they are calculated on the basis of a detailed weighing survey plan and a reliable statistical analysis method is applied. The operator should advise the competent authority about the intent of the passenger weighing survey and explain the survey plan in general terms. The revised standard mass values should only be used in circumstances comparable with those under which the survey was conducted. Where the revised standard masses exceed those in Tables 1, 2 and 3 of, then such higher values should be used. (gf) On any flight identified as carrying a significant number of passengers whose masses, including hand baggage, are expected to significantly deviate from the standard passenger mass, the operator should determine the actual mass of such passengers by weighing or by adding an adequate mass increment. (hg) If standard mass values for checked baggage are used and a significant number of passengers checked baggage is expected to significantly deviate from the standard baggage mass, the operator should determine the actual mass of such baggage by weighing or by adding an adequate mass increment.

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.105 Minimum equipment for flight

text: MANAGEMENT OF THE STATUS OF CERTAIN INSTRUMENTS, EQUIPMENT OR FUNCTIONS The operator should control and retain the status of the instruments, equipment or functions required for the intended operation, that are not controlled for the purpose of continuing airworthiness management.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.A.105 Minimum equipment for flight

text: MANAGEMENT OF THE STATUS OF CERTAIN INSTRUMENTS, EQUIPMENT OR FUNCTIONS (a) The operator should define responsibilities and procedures to retain and control the status of instruments, equipment or functions required for the intended operation, that are not controlled for the purpose of continuing airworthiness management. (b) Examples of such instruments, equipment or functions may be, but are not limited to, equipment related to navigation approvals as FM immunity or certain software versions.

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.185 Cockpit voice recorder

text: [...] (c) If required to be installed, the alternate power source should provide electrical power to operate both the CVR and the cockpit-mounted area microphone for at least 10 minutes, with a tolerance of 1 minute.

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.A.185 Cockpit voice recorder

text: TERMINOLOGY The terms used in CAT.IDE.A.185 should be understood as follows: (a) ‘Alternate power source’ means a power source that is different from the source(s) that normally provides (provide) power to the cockpit voice recorder function. (b) ‘Cockpit-mounted area microphone' means a microphone located in the flight crew compartment for the purpose of recording voice communications originating at the first and second pilot stations and voice communications of other crew members in the flight crew compartment when directed to those stations.

text: AMC1.2 CAT.IDE.A.190 Flight data recorder

text: Table 1: FDR — All aeroplanes

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: 2 Pressure altitude (including altitude values displayed on each flight crew member’s primary flight display, unless the aeroplane is type certified before 1 January 2023 and recording the values displayed at the captain position or the first officer position would require extensive modification) 3 Indicated airspeed or calibrated airspeed (including values of indicated airspeed or calibrated airspeed displayed on each flight crew member’s primary flight display, unless the aeroplane is type certified before 1 January 2023 and recording the values displayed at the captain position or the first officer position would require extensive modification)

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.191 Lightweight flight recorder

text: OPERATIONAL PERFORMANCE REQUIREMENTS (a) If the flight recorder records flight data, it should record at least the following parameters: (1) pitch attitude or pitch rate, (2) roll attitude or roll rate, (3) heading (magnetic or true) or yaw rate, (4) latitude, (5) longitude, (6) positioning system: estimated error (if available), (7) pressure altitude or altitude from a positioning system, (8) time, (10) ground speed, (11) positioning system: track (if available), (12) normal acceleration, (13) longitudinal acceleration, and (14) lateral acceleration. (b) If the flight recorder records images, it should capture views of the main instrument displays at the pilot station, or at both pilot stations when the aeroplane is certified for operation with a minimum crew of two pilots. The recorded image quality should allow reading the following indications during most of the flight: (1) magnetic heading, (2) time, (3) pressure altitude, (4) indicated airspeed,

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (5) vertical speed, (6) turn and slip, (7) attitude, (8) Mach number (if displayed), (9) stabilised heading, and (10) tachometer indication or equivalent indication of propulsive thrust or power. (c) If the flight recorder records a combination of images and flight data, each flight parameter listed in (a) should be recorded as flight data or by means of images. (d) The flight parameters listed in (a), which are recorded as flight data, should meet the performance specifications (range, sampling intervals, accuracy limits and resolution in read-out) as defined in the relevant table of EUROCAE Document ED-112 ‘Minimum Operational Performance Specification for Crash Protected Airborne Recorder Systems’, dated March 2003, or EUROCAE Document ED-155 ‘Minimum Operational Performance Specification for Lightweight Flight Recording Systems’, dated July 2009, or any later equivalent standard accepted by EASA. (e) The operational performance requirements for the flight recorder should be those laid down in: (1) EUROCAE Document ED-155 or any later equivalent standard accepted by EASA for lightweight flight recorders; or (2) EUROCAE Document ED-112 or any later equivalent standard accepted by EASA for crashprotected flight recorders.

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.A.191 Lightweight flight recorder

text: ADDITIONAL USEFUL INFORMATION (a) Experience has shown the usefulness, for analysing incidents and for training purposes, of recording additional information. In particular, audio of the flight crew compartment and information on the handling of the aircraft (such as position of flight controls, position of engine controls, fuel and oil indications, aircraft configuration selection), and an external view are very useful for such purposes. To capture such information, simple equipment such as an integrated microphone and integrated camera may be sufficient. (b) If the flight recorder includes optional capabilities such as described in (a), their recording duration is recommended to be at least 2 hours. (c) If the flight recorder is capable of acquiring flight parameters from some aircraft systems, it is advised to give priority to the flight parameters listed in Annex II-B to EUROCAE Document ED-155 or the flight parameters listed in Annex II-A to EUROCAE Document ED-112. Indeed, these flight parameters were selected based on their relevance in many safety investigations.

text: GM2 CAT.IDE.A.191 Lightweight flight recorder

text: INSTALLATION OF CAMERAS

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: When cameras are installed for the purpose of CAT.IDA.A.191, it is advised to install them so that they do not capture images of head and shoulders of the flight crew members whilst seated in their normal operating position.

text: GM3 CAT.IDE.A.191 Lightweight flight recorder

text: RECORDING ACCURACY OF ATTITUDE RATE PARAMETERS In the case of attitude rate parameters (pitch rate parameter, yaw rate parameter, roll rate parameter), the accuracy limit specified in EUROCAE Document ED-155, dated July 2009, was found to be unclear. Therefore, the following additional guidance is provided: (a) If the attitude rate parameter is provided by an approved system of the aeroplane, accuracy greater than as provided by this system is not expected for this attitude rate parameter. (b) If the attitude rate parameter is provided by a dedicated gyroscope, it is advisable that the gyroscope meets the following performance: (1) errors caused by linear accelerations less than ±3°/sec (equivalent to ±1% of 300°/sec recording range) for all combinations of parameter values and linear acceleration values in the respective ranges [-300°/sec; +300°/sec] and [-3g; +6g]; (2) errors caused by temperature less than ±5°/sec for all combinations of parameter values and temperature values in the respective ranges [-300°/sec; +300°/sec] and [-40°C; +85°C]; (3) angular random walk of the gyroscope equal to or less than 2°/sqrt(hour); and (4) bias stability of the gyroscope significantly less than 360°/hour (for instance, 50°/hour).

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.A.191(e) Lightweight flight recorder

text: FUNCTION TO MODIFY IMAGE AND AUDIO RECORDINGS The purpose of the function modifying the image and audio recordings is to allow the flight crew to protect their privacy by making such recordings inaccessible using normal techniques. The activation of this function is subject to the commander’s approval (refer to CAT.GEN.MPA.105). However, the equipment manufacturer or a safety investigation authority might still be able to retrieve these recordings using special techniques.

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.200 Combination recorder

text: GENERAL

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (a) When two flight data and cockpit voice combination recorders are installed, one should be located near the flight crew compartment, in order to minimise the risk of data loss due to a failure of the wiring that gathers data to the recorder. The other should be located at the rear section of the aeroplane, in order to minimise the risk of data loss due to recorder damage in the case of a crash. (b) When two flight data and cockpit voice combination recorders are installed and an alternate power source is required for the CVR function, it is acceptable to provide this alternate power source only to the cockpit-mounted area microphone and to one recorder.

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.220 First-aid kit

text: CONTENT OF FIRST-AID KITS (a) First-aid kits should be equipped with appropriate and sufficient medications and instrumentation. However, these kits should be complementedsupplemented by the operator according to the characteristics of the operation (scope of operation, flight duration, number and demographics of passengers, number of decks, etc.). (b) The following should be included in the first-aid kit: (1) Equipment (i) bandages (assorted sizes, including a triangular bandage); [...] (xii) tweezers: splinter; and (xiii) thermometers (non-mercury).; and (xiv) surgical masks. (2) Medications (i) simple analgesic (may includeing liquid paediatric form); (ii) antiemetic — non-injectable (including paediatric form); [...] (vi) antihistamine (including paediatric form). (3) Other content. The operator should make the instructions readily available. If an electronic format is available, then all instructions should be kept on the same device. If a paper format is used, then the instructions should be kept in the same kit with the applicable equipment and medication. The instructions should include, as a minimum, the following: (i) [...] (iii) Basic life support instructions cards (summarising and depicting the current algorithm for basic life support); and (iii)(iv) medical incident report form;.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (iv) biohazard disposal bags. (4) An eye irrigator, whilst not required to be carried in the first-aid kit, should, where possible, be available for use on the ground. Additional equipment. The following additional equipment should be carried on board each aircraft equipped with a first-aid kit, though not necessarily in the first-aid kit. When operating multi-deck aircraft, operators should assess if the additional equipment is needed on each deck. The additional equipment should include, as a minimum: (i) automated external defibrillator (AED) on all aircraft required to carry at least one cabin crew; (ii) bag-valve masks (masks in three sizes: one for adults, one for children, and one for infants); (iii) suitable airway management device (e.g. supraglottic airway devices, oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airways); (iv) eye irrigator; (v) biohazard disposal bags; and (vi) basic delivery kit (including sterile umbilical cord scissors and a pair of cord clamps) on all aircraft required to carry at least one cabin crew.

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.A.220 First-aid kit

text: LOCATION The location of the first-aid kit in the cabin is normally indicated using internationally recognisable signs.

text: GM2 CAT.IDE.A.220 First-aid kit

text: STORAGE As a best practice and wherever practicable, the emergency medical equipment listed under AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.220 should be kept close together.

text: GM3 CAT.IDE.A.220 First-aid kit

text: CONTENT OF FIRST-AID KITS The operator may supplement first-aid kits according to the characteristics of the operation based on a risk assessment. The assessment does not require an approval by the competent authority.

text: GM4 CAT.IDE.A.220 First-aid kit

text: LITHIUM BATTERIES Risks related to the presence of lithium batteries should be assessed. All equipment powered by lithium batteries carried on an aeroplane should comply with the provisions of AMC1 CAT.GEN.MPA.140(f) including applicable technical standards such as (E)TSO-C142.

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.225 Emergency medical kit

text: CONTENT OF EMERGENCY MEDICAL KITS

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (a) Emergency medical kits should be equipped with appropriate and sufficient medications and instrumentation. However, these kits should be complementedsupplemented by the operator according to the characteristics of the operation (scope of operation, flight duration, number and demographics of passengers, number of decks, etc.). (b) The following should be included in the emergency medical kit: (1) Equipment (i) sphygmomanometer — non-mercury electronic recommended; (ii) stethoscope; (iii) syringes and needles; (iv) intravenous cannulae (if intravenous fluids are carried in the first-aid kit, a sufficient supply of intravenous cannulae should be stored there as well a sufficient supply of intravenous cannulae should be available, subject to the amount of intravenous fluids carried on board); (v) oropharyngeal airways (three sizes); (vi)(v) tourniquet; (vii)(vi) disposable gloves; (viii)(vii) needle disposal box; (ix)(viii) one or more urinary catheter(s), appropriate for either sex, and anaesthetic gel; (x) basic delivery kit; (xi) bag-valve masks (masks two sizes: one for adults, one for children); (xii) intubation set; (xiii)(ix) aspirator; (xiv)(x) blood glucose testing equipment; and (xv)(xi) scalpel.; (xvi)(xii) pulse oximeter; and (xiii) pneumothorax set. (2) Instructions: the instructions should contain a list of contents (medications in trade names and generic names) in at least two languages (English and one other). This should include information on the effects and side effects of medications carried. There should also be basic instructions for use of the medications in the kit and guidance for conversion of units for the blood glucose testand ACLS cards (summarising and depicting the current algorithm for advanced cardiac life support). The operator should make the instructions readily available. If an electronic format is available, then all instructions should be kept on the same device. If a paper format is used, then the instructions should be kept in the same kit with the applicable equipment and medication. (3) Medications (i) coronary vasodilator, e.g. glyceriltrinitrate — oral;

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (ii) antispasmodic; (iii) epinephrine/adrenaline 1:1 000 (if a cardiac monitor is carried); (iv) adrenocorticoid — injectable; (v) major analgesic; (vi) diuretic — injectable; (vii) antihistamine — oral and injectable (including paediatric form); (viii) sedative/anticonvulsant — injectable, rectal and oral plus injectable and/or rectal sedative; (ix) medication for hypoglycaemia (e.g. hypertonic glucose); (x) antiemetic — injectable; (xi) antibiotic — injectable form — Ceftriaxone or Cefotaxime; (xi) atropine — injectable; (xii) bronchial dilator — injectable or inhaled (disposable collapsible spacer); (xiii) IV fluids in appropriate quantity e.g. sodium chloride 0.9 % (minimum 250 ml); and (xiv) acetylsalicylic acid 300 mg — oral — for coronary use. and/or injectable; (xv) antiarrhythmic — if a cardiac monitor is carried; (xvi) antihypertensive medication; (xvii) beta-blocker — oral. * Epinephrine/Adrenaline 1:10 000 can be a dilution of epinephrine 1:1 000 (4) The carriage of an automated external defibrillator should be determined by the operator on the basis of a risk assessment taking into account the particular needs of the operation. (5) The automated external defibrillator should be carried on the aircraft, though not necessarily in the emergency medical kit.

text: AMC3 CAT.IDE.A.225 Emergency medical kit

text: ACCESS TO THE EMERGENCY MEDICAL KIT (a) When the actual situation on board so requires, the commander should limit access to the emergency medical kit. (b) Drugs should be administered by medical doctors, qualified nurses, paramedics or emergency medical technicians. (c) Medical students, student paramedics, student emergency medical technicians or nurses aides should only administer drugs if no person mentioned in (b) is on board the flight and appropriate advice has been received. (d) Whenever allowed under the operator’s national legislation, drugs may be administered by suitably trained persons, other than medical doctors.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (de) Oral drugs should not be denied in medical emergency situations where no medically qualified persons are on board the flight.

text: GM2 CAT.IDE.A.225 Emergency medical kit

text: CONTENT OF EMERGENCY MEDICAL KITS The operator may supplement emergency medical kits according to the characteristics of the operation based on a risk assessment. The assessment does not require an approval by the competent authority.

text: GM3 CAT.IDE.A.225 Emergency medical kit

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.230(d) First-aid oxygen

text: GENERAL (a) The mass flow of oxygen should be in accordance with CS-25.1443 or equivalent. (b) The oxygen supply may be calculated by assuming an average flow rate of at least 3 litres standard temperature pressure dry (STPD)/minute/person, or equivalent, as demonstrated during the certification of the dispensing unit.

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.A.230 First-aid oxygen

text: GENERAL [...] (f) Means may be provided to decrease the flow to not less than 2 litres per minute, STPD, at any altitude.

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.A.345(a) Communication, navigation and surveillance equipment for operations under IFR or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks

text: PERFORMANCE-BASED COMMUNICATION AND SURVEILLANCE (PBCS) OPERATIONS For operations in airspaces where required communication performance (RCP) and required surveillance performance (RSP) for PBCS have been prescribed, the operator should:

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (a) ensure that the communication equipment and surveillance equipment meet the prescribed RCP and RSP specifications respectively, as shown by an AFM statement or equivalent; (b) ensure that operational constraints are reflected in the MEL; (c) establish and include in the OM: (1) normal, abnormal and contingency procedures; (2) the flight crew qualification and proficiency constraints; and (3) a training programme for relevant personnel consistent with the intended operations; (d) ensure continued airworthiness of the communication equipment and surveillance equipment in accordance with the appropriate RCP and RSP specifications respectively; (e) ensure that the contracted communication service provider (CSP) for the airspace being flown complies with the required RCP and RSP specifications as well as with monitoring, recording and notification requirements; and (f) participate to monitoring programmes established in the airspace being flown in order to: (1) submit the relevant reports of observed communication and surveillance performance respectively; and (2) establish a process for immediate corrective action in case non-compliance with the appropriate RCP or RSP specifications is detected.

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.A.345(a) Communication, navigation and surveillance equipment for operations under IFR or under VFR over routes not navigated by reference to visual landmarks

text: PBCS OPERATIONS — GENERAL Detailed guidance material on PBCS operations may be found in the following documents: (a) ICAO Doc 9869 ‘Performance-based Communication and Surveillance (PBCS) Manual’ (b) ICAO Doc 10037 ‘Global Operational Data Link (GOLD) Manual’ PBCS OPERATIONS — AIRCRAFT ELIGIBILITY (a) The aircraft eligibility for compliance with the required RCP/RSP specifications should be demonstrated by the aircraft manufacturer or equipment supplier and be specific to each individual aircraft or the combination of the aircraft type and the equipment. The demonstrated compliance with specific RCP/RSP specifications may be documented in one of the following documents: (1) the type certificate (TC); (2) the supplemental type certificate (STC); (3) the aeroplane flight manual (AFM) or AFM Supplement; (4) a compliance statement from the manufacturer or the holder of the design approval of the data link installation, approved by the State of Design; or

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (b) In addition to the indication of compliance with specific RCP/RSP specifications, the operator should comply with any associated operating limitations, information and procedures specified by the aircraft manufacturer or equipment supplier in the AFM or other appropriate documents. PBCS OPERATIONS — MEL ENTRIES (a) The operator should amend the MEL, in accordance with the items identified by the aircraft manufacturer or equipment supplier in the master minimum equipment list (MMEL) or MMEL supplement, in relation to PBCS capability, to address the impact of losing an associated system/subsystem on data link operational capability. (b) As an example, equipment required in current FANS 1/A-capable aircraft, potentially affecting RCP and RSP capabilities, may be the following: (1) VHF, SATCOM, or HFDL1 radios, as applicable; (2) ACARS management unit (MU)/communications management unit (CMU); (3) flight management computer (FMC) integration; and (4) printer, if procedures require its use. PBCS OPERATIONS — OPERATING PROCEDURES The operator should establish operating procedures for the flight crew and other relevant personnel, such as but not limited to, flight dispatchers and maintenance personnel. These procedures should cover the usage of PBCS-relevant systems and include as a minimum: (a) pre-flight planning requirements including MEL consideration and flight plan filing; (b) actions to be taken in the data link operation, to include specific RCP/RSP required cases; (c) actions to be taken for the loss of data link capability while in and prior to entering the airspace requiring specific RCP/RSP specifications. Examples may be found in ICAO Doc 10037; (d) problem reporting procedures to the local/regional PBCS monitoring body or central reporting body as applicable; and (e) compliance with specific regional requirements and procedures, if applicable. PBCS OPERATIONS — QUALIFICATION AND TRAINING (a) The operator should ensure that flight crew and other relevant personnel such as flight dispatchers and maintenance personnel are proficient with PBCS operations. A separate training programme is not required if data link communication is integrated in the current training programme. However, the operator should ensure that the existing training programme incorporates a basic PBCS concept and requirements for flight crew and other personnel that have direct impact on overall data link performance required for the provisions of air traffic services such as reduced separation. (b) The elements covered during the training should be as a minimum: (1) Flight crew (i) Data link communication system theory relevant to operational use; (ii) AFM limitations; (iii) Normal pilot response to data link communication messages;

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (iv) Message elements in the message set used in each environment; (v) RCP/RSP specifications and their performance requirements; (vi) Implementation of performance-based reduced separation with associated RCP/RSP specifications or other possible performance requirements associated with their routes; (vii) Other ATM operations involving data link communication services; (viii) Normal, non-normal and contingency procedures; and (ix) Data link communication failure/problem and reporting. Note (1) If flight crew has already been trained on data link operations, additional training only on PBCS is required, addressing a basic concept and requirements that have direct impact on overall data link performance required for provisions of air traffic services (e.g. reduced separation). Note (2) Training may be provided through training material and other means that simulate the functionality. (2) Dispatchers/flight operations officers (i) Proper use of data link and PBCS flight plan designators; (ii) Air traffic service provider’s separation criteria and procedures relevant to RCP/RSP specifications; (iii) MEL remarks or exceptions based on data link communication; (iv) Procedures for transitioning to voice communication and other contingency procedures related to the operation in the event of abnormal behaviour of the data link communication; (v) Coordination with the ATS unit related to, or following a special data link communication exceptional event (e.g. log-on or connection failures); and (vi) Contingency procedures to transition to a different separation standard when data link communication fails. (3) Engineering and maintenance personnel (i) Data link communication equipment including its installation, maintenance and modification; (ii) MEL relief and procedures for return to service authorisations; and (iii) Correction of reported non-performance of data link system. PBCS OPERATIONS — CONTINUED AIRWORTHINESS (a) The operator should ensure that aircraft systems are properly maintained to continue to meet the applicable RCP/RSP specifications. (b) The operator should ensure that the following elements are documented and managed appropriately: (1) configuration and equipment list detailing the pertinent hardware and software components for the aircraft/fleet(s) applicable to the specific RCP/RSP operation;

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (2) configuration control for subnetwork, communication media and routing policies; and (3) description of systems including display and alerting functions (including message sets). PBCS OPERATIONS — CSP COMPLIANCE (a) The operator should ensure that their contracted CSPs notify the ATS units of any failure condition that may have an impact on PBCS operations. Notification should be made to all relevant ATS units regardless of whether the CSP has a contract with them. (b) The operator may demonstrate the compliance of their contracted CSP through service level agreements (SLAs)/contractual arrangements for data link services or through a joint agreement among PBCS stakeholders such as a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) or a PBCS Charter. PBCS OPERATIONS — PBCS CHARTER A PBCS charter has been developed by PBCS stakeholders and is available as an alternative to SLAs in order to validate the agreement between the operator and the CSP for compliance with RCP/RSP required for PBCS operations. The charter is hosted on the website www.FANS-CRA.com where operators and CSPs can subscribe. PBCS OPERATIONS — PARTICIPATION IN MONITORING PROGRAMMES (a) The operator should establish a process to participate in local or regional PBCS monitoring programmes and provide the following information, including any subsequent changes, to monitoring bodies: (1) operator name; (2) operator contact details; and (3) other coordination information as applicable, including appropriate information means for the CSP/SSP service fail notification. (b) The process should also address the actions to be taken with respect to problem reporting and resolution of deficiencies, such as: (1) reporting problems identified by the flight crew or other personnel to the PBCS monitoring bodies associated with the route of the flight on which the problem occurred; (2) disclosing operational data in a timely manner to the appropriate PBCS monitoring bodies when requested for the purposes of investigating a reported problem; and (3) investigating and resolving the cause of the deficiencies reported by the PBCS monitoring bodies.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.H.105 Minimum equipment for flight

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.H.105 Minimum equipment for flight

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.H.191 Lightweight flight recorder

text: OPERATIONAL PERFORMANCE REQUIREMENTS (a) If the flight recorder records flight data, it should record at least the following parameters: (1) relative time count, (2) pitch attitude or pitch rate, (3) roll attitude or roll rate, (4) heading (magnetic or true) or yaw rate, (5) latitude, (6) longitude, (7) positioning system: estimated error (if available), (8) pressure altitude or altitude from a positioning system, (9) time, (10) ground speed, (11) positioning system: track (if available), (12) normal acceleration, (13) longitudinal acceleration, and (14) lateral acceleration. (b) If the flight recorder records images, it should capture views of the main instrument displays at the pilot station, or at both pilot stations when the helicopter is certified for operation with a minimum

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: crew of two pilots. The recorded image quality should allow reading the following indications during most of the flight: (1) magnetic or true heading, (2) time (if presented on the front instrument panel), (3) pressure altitude, (4) indicated airspeed, (5) vertical speed, (6) slip, (7) OAT, (8) attitude (if displayed), (9) stabilised heading (if displayed), and (10) main rotor speed. (c) If the flight recorder records a combination of images and flight data, each flight parameter listed in (a) should be recorded as flight data or by means of images. (d) The flight parameters listed in (a), which are recorded as flight data, should meet the performance specifications (range, sampling intervals, accuracy limits and resolution in read-out) as defined in the relevant table of EUROCAE Document ED-112 ‘Minimum Operational Performance Specification for Crash Protected Airborne Recorder Systems’, dated March 2003, or EUROCAE Document ED-155 ‘Minimum Operational Performance Specification for Lightweight Flight Recording Systems’, dated July 2009, or any later equivalent standard accepted by EASA. (e) The operational performance requirements for the flight recorder should be those laid down in: (1) EUROCAE Document ED-155 or any later equivalent standard accepted by EASA for lightweight flight recorders; or (2) EUROCAE Document ED-112 or any later equivalent standard accepted by EASA for crashprotected flight recorders.

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.H.191 Lightweight flight recorder

text: ADDITIONAL USEFUL INFORMATION Refer to GM1 CAT.IDE.A.191.

text: GM2 CAT.IDE.H.191 Lightweight flight recorder

text: INSTALLATION OF CAMERAS Refer to GM2 CAT.IDE.A.191.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: GM3 CAT.IDE.H.191 Lightweight flight recorder

text: RECORDING ACCURACY OF ATTITUDE RATE PARAMETERS Refer to GM3 CAT.IDE.A.191.

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.H.191(e) Lightweight flight recorder

text: FUNCTION TO MODIFY IMAGE AND AUDIO RECORDINGS Refer to GM1 CAT.IDE.A.191(e).

text: AMC1 CAT.IDE.H.220 First-aid kit

text: CONTENT OF FIRST-AID KITS (a) First-aid kits should be equipped with appropriate and sufficient medications and instrumentation. However, these kits should be complementedsupplemented by the operator according to the characteristics of the operation (scope of operation, flight duration, number and demographics of passengers, etc.). (b) The following should be included in the first-aid kit: (1) Equipment (i) bandages (assorted sizes, including a triangular bandage); [...] (xii) tweezers: splinter; and (xiii) thermometers (non-mercury).; and (xiv) surgical masks. (2) Medications (i) simple analgesic (may includeing liquid paediatric form — if the type of operation does not include transport of children or infants, the paediatric form may not be included); (ii) antiemetic — non-injectable; [...] (vi) antihistamine (including paediatric form – if the type of operation does not include transport of children or infants, the paediatric form may not be included). (3) Other content. The operator should make the instructions readily available. If an electronic format is available, then all instructions should be kept on the same device. If a paper format is used, then the instructions should be kept in the same kit with the applicable equipment and medication. The instructions should include, as a minimum, the following: (i) [...]

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: (iii) Basic life support instructions cards (summarising and depicting the current algorithm for basic life support); and (iii)(iv) medical incident report form;. (iv) biohazard disposal bags. (4) An eye irrigator, whilst not required to be carried in the first-aid kit, should, where possible, be available for use on the ground. Additional equipment. The following additional equipment should be carried on board each aircraft equipped with a first-aid kit, though not necessarily in the first-aid kit. The additional equipment should include, as a minimum: (i) automated external defibrillator (AED) on all aircraft required to carry at least one cabin crew; (ii) bag-valve masks (masks in three sizes: one for adults, one for children, and one for infants). If the type of operation does not include transport of children or infants, those sizes of bagvalve masks may not be included; (iii) suitable airway management device (e.g. supraglottic airway devices, oropharyngeal or nasopharyngeal airways); (iv) eye irrigator; and (v) biohazard disposal bags. (5) For HEMS operations, where the content of the first-aid kit is included in the medical equipment carried on board, the first-aid kit as described above is no longer required.

text: GM1 CAT.IDE.H.220 First-aid kit

text: LOCATION AND USE The location of the first-aid kit is normally indicated using internationally recognisable signs. The first-aid kit ‘should be readily accessible for use’ in helicopter operations should be understood as the firstaid kit being either accessible in flight or immediately after landing. In some operations, it is not practicable to use the first-aid kit during flight. Therefore, the first-aid kit can be carried in the cargo compartment, where it will be easily accessible for use as soon as the aircraft has landed, when the following conditions are met: (a) precautionary landing sites are available; (b) the lack of cabin space is such that movement or use of the first-aid kit is impaired; and (c) the installation of the first-aid kit in the cabin is not practicable.

text: GM2 CAT.IDE.H.220 First-aid kit

text: STORAGE As a best practise and wherever practicable, the emergency medical equipment listed under AMC1 CAT.IDE.H.220 should be kept close together.

text: Annex III to ED Decision 2021/005/R

text: GM3 CAT.IDE.H.220 First-aid kit

text: GM4 CAT.IDE.H.220 First-aid kit